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re: Texas Supreme Court rejects sharia divorce.

Posted on 9/27/26 at 12:35 am to
Posted by LEOPOLD2
Member since Aug 2026
119 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 12:35 am to
It's probably been answered in the threat already but in case it hasn't. Was the husband or the wife or both American citizens?
Posted by PastorJ
Member since Sep 2024
1400 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 12:53 am to
Good.
Posted by icecreamsnowball
Member since Mar 2025
1819 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 4:40 am to
quote:

The misleading OP is going to confuse a lot of people who think this divorce occurred IN Texas
anyone who thinks that after reading the OP is legit retarded.
Posted by icecreamsnowball
Member since Mar 2025
1819 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 4:52 am to
quote:

NawlinsTiger9
you’ve been blowing him this entire thread lmao
Posted by SlowFlowPro
With populists, expect populism
Member since Jan 2004
484000 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 6:47 am to
quote:

anyone who thinks that after reading the OP is legit retarded.

Plenty ITT made the mistake, including the OP
Posted by SlowFlowPro
With populists, expect populism
Member since Jan 2004
484000 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 6:48 am to
quote:

Come on man. You seem to have this habit of intentionally leaving out portions of posts and then acting like the part you quoted was the sum total of what was said.

I was trying to be nice to him to steer him correctly b/c his post seemed like he was implying "Shariah law" occurred IN the US.

The rest of his post is

quote:

or simply get the frick out.


And that's what the guy who got the divorce in Pakistan did. He "got out" and went to Pakistan for the divorce.
Posted by SlowFlowPro
With populists, expect populism
Member since Jan 2004
484000 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 6:49 am to
quote:

The law in Pakistan isn't exactly "secular". It's derived from Qur'anic teaching on divorce and supported by the Muslim Family Laws Ordinance of 1961, which, itself, is rooted in Islamic religious jurisprudence. It even says "Muslim" in the name.


Which specific passages in the Quran discuss waiving normal notice of legal proceedings by placing ads in newspapers ?
Posted by TrueTiger
Chicken's most valuable
Member since Sep 2004
84259 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 8:17 am to
quote:

I was trying to be nice to him to steer him correctly b/c his post seemed like he was implying "Shariah law" occurred IN the US.


I went back and clarified and you get credit and thanks for linking TXSC's decree.

Posted by LEOPOLD2
Member since Aug 2026
119 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 9:15 am to
quote:



And that's what the guy who got the divorce in Pakistan did. He "got out" and went to Pakistan for the divorce.


I seriously can't tell if your intentionally mischaracterizing just to maintain an argument or obtuse
Posted by ChineseBandit58
Pearland, TX
Member since Aug 2005
49995 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 5:32 pm to
quote:

Using SFP logic on comity, All I have to do regards getting a favorable divorce settlement is fly to Costa Rico have the right judge issue a document declaring divorce, with house, weekend property, cars, savings accounts and maybe kids[if I want them] in my favor. Back to Houston and file divorce decree and collect settlements.

I find no connection to anything SFP has ever said on this forum to substantiate your statement.
Posted by Trevaylin
south texas
Member since Feb 2019
11659 posts
Posted on 9/27/26 at 5:42 pm to
check his post at 2:57 yesterday
Posted by Huck Finn
Baton Rouge
Member since Jul 2009
2653 posts
Posted on 9/28/26 at 7:50 am to
Where did the $100 Million come from?
What it that money just stays in Texas and you both go back to your respective countries? Is it really about the marriage or the money?
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
47685 posts
Posted on 9/28/26 at 10:00 am to
That specific act is not in the Qur'an, and it's rather deceptive of you to ask that question as if that is the relevant question to ask.

My statement was that the state law in Pakistan is "derived from Qur'anic teaching". In my statement, "derived" means originating from or developing from.

More specifically, it's Islamic jurisprudence developed from basic principles found in both the Qur'an and the Hadith, which are religious texts within Islam.

The Qur'an addresses men as the ones who divorce (2:231, 65:1), and Muslim jurists inferred from this that talaq is the husband's unilateral right, exercised like the ending of a contract and needing no court or consent.

The Pakistani law sought to add a protection for women by requiring a waiting period and a notice to the wife for the unilateral divorce, and the obscure newspaper was sufficient to meet the requirements of the law.

Whether or not there are similar laws like that elsewhere that are not based on Islamic religious teaching is irrelevant to whether or not this instance, in Pakistan, was based on Islamic religious teaching that made its way into state laws.
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