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Out of batters box

Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:02 pm
Posted by Bigdibber
Member since May 2023
175 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:02 pm
Just watched the replay 4 times - the batter stepped out of the batters box as the pitch was incoming. Count was Two strikes. How is that not an automatic out well before the play at the plate?
Posted by BilbeauTBaggins
probably stuck in traffic
Member since May 2021
4931 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:04 pm to
Does the pitch end because this turns into a throw to home to stop a steal?

The reason it’s a balk is because the rule regarding that specific catchers interference (squeeze play/attempt to steal home)
Posted by Yeahright
On a big sphere out there.
Member since Sep 2018
1951 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:04 pm to
Automatic out because he stepped out of the batters box? I'm assuming you are saying the pitch was a strike and inning over?
Posted by Meauxjeaux
98836 posts including my alters
Member since Jun 2005
40496 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:05 pm to
Was he completely out when the pitch crossed the plate?

Which it never had a chance to cross the plate.


If he’s got a toenail on the chalk line, he’s still in the box.
Posted by CDawson
Louisiana
Member since Dec 2017
16528 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:05 pm to
If the umps saw a balk or catchers interference why didn’t they immediately call dead ball? It’s a spot call. The rule they used was correct rule but they blew the call since the catcher didn’t touch or cross the plate. The umpire action proved they didn’t see it when it allegedly happened or they would have immediately called it.
Posted by Bigdibber
Member since May 2023
175 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:08 pm to
he was out of the box
also you can't stand with a foot out and swing
Posted by LafTiger
Member since Dec 2008
1299 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:08 pm to
quote:

The batter's legal position shall be both feet within the batter's box. Approved ruling: The lines defining the box are within the batter's box.


One toe, according to the definition isn’t “in” the batters box.

(Got this off google, be curious to hear the SEC bullshite their way out of this one)
Posted by jmarto1
Houma, LA/ Las Vegas, NV
Member since Mar 2008
34317 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:10 pm to
quote:

If the umps saw a balk



This si what me and a former MLB pitcher were going with during that sequence
Posted by MarciMoshes
Atlanta
Member since Nov 2023
312 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:37 pm to
Because it was deemed catcher interference. In catcher interference the coach gets to decide between whether he wants the strike(which was strike 3, I believe)against his batter for leaving the box or does he want the catcher interference. He took catcher's interference and was awarded first base. You get the choice of the results of the play or the interference. The coach took the interference call naturally.
Posted by kciDAtaE
Member since Apr 2017
16034 posts
Posted on 5/25/24 at 10:43 pm to
Wasn’t the call a balk? Don’t think it matters what anyone does if a balk is called.
Posted by 4EverATiger12345
Member since Sep 2014
133 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 2:33 am to
There are exceptions when a batter may leave the batter’s box:

Rule 7 d.1) d).
A defensive player attempts a play on a runner at ANY base.
This post was edited on 5/26/24 at 2:46 am
Posted by Bayou
CenLA
Member since Feb 2005
37052 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 7:15 am to
None of the entire Ump crew had a total grip on the play. Therefore, there was zero grip on the call or any judgements.
Posted by bluedragon
Birmingham
Member since May 2020
7001 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 7:20 am to
If the foot is completely out of the box.

Everytime I umped behind the plate, I erased the line next to the plate. Your foot has to be completely out. Or you have to step on the plate. That line is less than 6 inches off the plate .....

Coaches were told ....That is my call and there will be no line to cause a headache from all your bitching.....
Posted by Srbtiger06
Member since Apr 2006
28306 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 7:27 am to
quote:

None of the entire Ump crew had a total grip on the play. Therefore, there was zero grip on the call or any judgements.


This, but they'll never admit it. They clearly thought there was no interference and called the out. The SC coach admitted he asked them while teams were swapping and then it took them an additional couple minutes to make that call.

If you're that skeptical and not 100% sure you're making the right call, then you need to let the play stand since you couldn't review it.
Posted by mdomingue
Lafayette, LA
Member since Nov 2010
31260 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 7:59 am to
quote:

quote:

The batter's legal position shall be both feet within the batter's box. Approved ruling: The lines defining the box are within the batter's box.



One toe, according to the definition isn’t “in” the batters box.

(Got this off google, be curious to hear the SEC bullshite their way out of this one)



The legal definition of in the batter's box is any portion of your foot. Note the rule you quoted does not say entirely in the batter's box.
This post was edited on 5/26/24 at 8:01 am
Posted by SOL2
Dallas burbs
Member since Jan 2020
4853 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 8:13 am to
Bad call
Posted by NotaStarGazer
Member since Dec 2023
1233 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 8:23 am to
I concede the catcher went to the plate earlier than he should have which is the standard reason for an interference call. But here is the overriding contradiction of that. BEFORE the catcher went over the plate the batter was clearly out of the batter's box. There is NO WAY you can have catcher's interference if the batter is not legally at the plate to begin with...and he was not. You can see it yourself. Go to about the 9:37 mark of this video and play it back in slow motion (.25 speed).

LINK

Also, in the postgame press conference, the SEC guy tried to act like what a hard and fast rule it was and read the rule. He then said the play wasn't appealable/able to be protested because it was a judgment call. Which one is it?
This post was edited on 5/26/24 at 10:43 am
Posted by GetmorewithLes
UK Basketball Fan
Member since Jan 2011
19181 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 8:32 am to
quote:

Wasn’t the call a balk? Don’t think it matters what anyone does if a balk is called.


As explained later by the SEC rule guy the balk was a "catchers balk." It was called on the Neal as well as interference. The balk awarded the runner home plate (without touching it) and the interference awarded the batter first base. This is not my interpretation... straight out of the SEC rule man on the telecast. Everything was called on the catcher.


Now here is my thoughts on this after careful consideration. I see the intent of the rule is in case of a hit and run or suicide squeeze play and keeps the catcher from interfering with the pitch to the batter. However this is where the issue comes up that the batter vacated the batters box and making this a straight up steal. Also if Herring detected the steal he could have stepped off the rubber and threw home for a non-pitch.
Posted by GetmorewithLes
UK Basketball Fan
Member since Jan 2011
19181 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 8:37 am to
quote:

The legal definition of in the batter's box is any portion of your foot. Note the rule you quoted does not say entirely in the batter's box.


If the batter has one foot out of the BB he is out of the box. This was the rule enforced to keep batters from erasing the back chalk line and getting more depth in the box.
Posted by notbilly
alter
Member since Sep 2015
5149 posts
Posted on 5/26/24 at 8:39 am to
quote:

BEFORE the catcher went over the plate the batter was clearly out of the batter's box. There is NO WAY you can have catcher's interference if the batter is not legally at the plate to begin with...and he was not. You can see it yourself.


Neal moved to the plate while the batter was still in the box. It all happens so fast that the batter is in the box at the release of the pitch, but he is out by the time Neal is fully over the plate. The batter can leave the box if a defensive player is making a play at a base. I'm no ump, but I don't think this is an automatic strike. And I have no idea why everyone is arguing this point. Neal didn't touch home until he had the ball and the original call of the runner being out is the only thing that should matter. The was reversed and that is the only relevant thing.




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