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re: Pope Francis permits Priests to bless same sex couples in major Vatican doctrine change

Posted on 12/20/23 at 9:37 pm to
Posted by Guntoter1
Baton Rouge
Member since Nov 2020
1758 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 9:37 pm to
quote:

disagree. The ceremonial laws and ordinances were fulfilled in Christ and therefore are of no more use to Christians. A road sign is useful to lead you to your destination, but you have no more use of it once you've arrived. Christ is the destination, so those things which are no longer needed have passed away, and those which God has repurposed continue for the edification of Christians under the new covenant in Jesus Christ.


You are correct here.

The ordinary Christian is now the priesthood of the believer, so we need no additional priests. Jesus Christ is the High Priest who intercedes for His people, so we need no other High Priest. We can go boldly before the throne of grace through Jesus Christ in prayer, so we need no priests or others to intercede for us through prayer. We no longer have sacrifices (such as the perpetual sacrifice of the mass) because of Christ's once-for-all sacrifice on behalf of His people.

Your understanding of this is where we disagree.
John 6
The last supper.
The early church fathers all disagree with you.
1500 years of the mass (up to the reformation) are proof to any dispassionate observer that the Christian understanding of the eucaharist and the mass have always been the Catholic understanding from the beginning.
This post was edited on 12/20/23 at 9:56 pm
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:19 pm to
quote:

“I am not the God of the dead but ov the living” Mary is still alive as are all of the saints.
Not in the same way you and I are alive. They are alive in spirit, but dead in body. We are alive in spirit and body. The verse you quoted in Matthew 22 was referencing Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, who all died. The passage is on the resurrection, which assumes bodily death, as well.

Mary is dead as well as all Christians who have gone into glory (the Bible refers to Christians broadly as saints).

quote:

Do you ask your congregation to pray for you?
Yes, because we as living Christians are commanded to pray for each other and we, as living human beings, have the capacity to speak to each other and hear each others' requests so that we can make our petitions to God.

quote:

Mary is part of our congregation.
She is a great asset. I would recommend you include her into your congregation.
Mary has died and is in glory right now, worshipping her savior. She has no divine qualities given to her (like omniscience or omnipresence) to make it possible for her to receive prayers from the living.

The object of prayer is reserved for God alone, not man and not the dead who passed before us. When I speak to my wife and ask her to pray for me, I am not praying to her in order for her to pray for me, I'm merely speaking to her. Prayer always has a sense of worship associated with it, which is why we are to pray to God alone, who alone is worthy of worship.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:26 pm to
quote:

So how do you square that with Christ's instruction in Matthew 18:15-20? The Church is the final arbiter of disagreements among the faithful. However, you being from the Reformed tradition and myself being from the Catholic tradition, we are going to have a number of disagreements that are considered to be of theological importantance.

If I believe in the Real Presence in the Eucharist or that life begins at conception, but a fellow Christian who is a member of the Presbyterian Church (USA) holds neither of these beliefs, just who are we supposed to appeal to as a final arbiter? Obviously I won't accept the decision of their church just like they won't accept the judgment of mine.
Matt. 18 is speaking about church discipline, which is a mark of a true church. I believe in church polity, and I specifically believe that the Bible teaches a Presbyterian form of church polity, which is why I'm Presbyterian. I believe that Matt. 18 is speaking about elders (the true successors of the apostles) admitting people into membership and removing them from membership in the visible church as holding the keys to the kingdom.

As far as mediating differences between denominations or expressions of the one church? Ultimately Christ is the judge, even above the courts of the church, and He will judge the actions of those who rule in His name and by His authority. I believe in the mediatorial kingship of Christ, which means that Jesus Christ is presently ruling as the God-man in Heaven right now, at this very moment. He is the head of the Church and king over all nations for the sake of the Church, and He will judge all those in authority based on how well they served Him in the capacities that He gave them.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:30 pm to
quote:

Ehhh, the solas were not present in the early church.
Neither was the complete doctrine of the Trinity, yet the doctrine was right there in the Scriptures all along. Same with the Solas.

quote:

At least not sola scriptura, and not sola fide in the way its defined today by modern evangelicals. The rest could be workable with some nuance added.
All of the Solas are taken from Scripture. What you are arguing with is the early church's understanding of them.

quote:

I mean you have Irenaeus, who learned from Polycarp, who learned from John, stating in the 2nd century that the pillars of orthodoxy are scripture AND tradition, but the surest source of orthodoxy is the church in Rome.

Sounds a lot like scripture + tradition + magesterium to me.
Irenaeus used tradition to support the Scriptures and he taught that the Scriptures were foundational to the faith.

What's interesting to me is that Catholics teach that the doctrines and dogmas of the RCC developed over many centuries yet always seem to take the full-fledged understanding of modern Catholics and anachronistically impose them back on the early church fathers, as if they had the same understanding as the modern Catholics do. That's simply not true.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:32 pm to
quote:

where in scripture does it say we can't have mediators between Jesus and others?

edit: the article I was responding to said you can go to others and ask them to pray for you, but if there is one mediator between God and man, and we should only go to Jesus with our prayers, why go to someone else? Seems like a contradiction to me.

Again if the saints are alive in heaven, couldn't they too be praying to God?
A mediator is someone who goes between you and someone else. When I ask a friend to pray for me, they are going to God beside me, not in my stead as a mediator. My friend and I both pray to Jesus who is our mediator with the Father. That's the difference.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:33 pm to
quote:

You seem to forget that God Almighty Himself ordered the carving of images when he commanded that the Cherubim figures adorn the Ark of the Covenant and He commanded Moses to make a figure of a serpent.
Very true, and it is God's prerogative to define exactly how He is to be worshipped. We don't have such liberties to come up with our own versions of what He has specifically commanded in other historically-specific contexts.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:37 pm to
quote:

One question: did Jesus leave us a Bible or did he leave us a church?
Answer : he left us a church. The church gave us the Bible. It’s not the other way around as you seem to think the Bible is the ultimate authority but the Bible LITERALY says the church is the authority .
So if you are correct and the Bible IS the ultimate authority, then listen to what it says and accept the church as the final authority.
Really simple
The Bible is the very word of God that Christ gifted His Church. The Church didn't create it, God did. The Church merely received it as what it was.

This is one of the worst takes I always hear from Catholics, as if it was man who created the Bible and not God. There was no council that determined the OT Scriptures, and yet Jesus taught from them and held the Jews accountable to them. That's because they were the word of God that God preserved and gave to the people.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 10:46 pm to
quote:

Your understanding of this is where we disagree.
John 6
The last supper.
The early church fathers all disagree with you.
1500 years of the mass (up to the reformation) are proof to any dispassionate observer that the Christian understanding of the eucaharist and the mass have always been the Catholic understanding from the beginning.
John 6 is so butchered I honestly hate discussing it any longer.

The context is that Jesus just fed several thousand people with a miracle (1-15), and those people followed Him around looking for more food. He did what He frequently did in John with the "I am" statements by relating what they were looking for to Himself to show that what they really needed was Him. Just like the living water, and the entrance through the door, and the bread of life, etc., Jesus was merely using a word picture to explain that He is the messiah and that people should be seeking Him as God rather than water or bread.

He said as much in verses 26 and 27: "truly, truly, I say to you, you are seeking me, not because you saw signs, but because you ate your fill of the loaves. Do not work for the food that perishes, but for the food that endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give to you. For on him God the Father has set his seal.”
Posted by Guntoter1
Baton Rouge
Member since Nov 2020
1758 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 11:04 pm to
quote:

The Bible is the very word of God that Christ gifted His Church. The Church didn't create it, God did. The Church merely received it as what it was. This is one of the worst takes I always hear from Catholics, as if it was man who created the Bible and not God. There was no council that determined the OT Scriptures, and yet Jesus taught from them and held the Jews accountable to them. That's because they were the word of God that God preserved and gave to the people.


Literally everything you have said in this post is factually incorrect

I will respond to only one of your errors due to space and time constraints of this forum.
You said there was no council that determined the Old Testament scriptures and yet Jesus read from them.
You obviously do not know what the Septuagint is or where it came from. The Septuagint is the Bible that Jesus read from. It is the Greek translation of th Jewish Old Testament. It was commissioned by the Jewish authorities prior to Christ for the purpose of formalizing the books of the OT for the faithful Jewish community .
Septuagint is a numerical title assigned to this Bible to signify the 70 Jewish scholars who were commissioned to compile the true and full text of the OT. Ironically the discovery of the Dead Sea scrolls confirmed the Catholic Churches use of the Septuagint as the correct version of the Old Testament.
This information is historical scientific fact acknowledged by Bible scholars universally both Jewish scholars and Protestant. It is an inconvenient truth that no one talks about because it is so embarrassing to the Protestant faith. If you don’t believe me please google Septuagint
Posted by Guntoter1
Baton Rouge
Member since Nov 2020
1758 posts
Posted on 12/20/23 at 11:11 pm to
quote:

He said as much in verses 26 and 27: "truly, truly, I say to you, you are seeking me, not because you saw signs, but because you ate your fill of the loaves. Do not work for the food that perishes, but for the food that endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give to you. For on him God the Father has set his seal.”


One subject at a time. Let’s stick to the Septuagint before we move on to your poor interp of Jesus words.
Posted by Guntoter1
Baton Rouge
Member since Nov 2020
1758 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 1:54 am to
O come desire of nations bind
In one the hearts of all mankind
O bid our sad divisions cease
And be yourself our king of peace
Rejoice Rejoice Emmanuel
Shall come to you o Israel

Merry Christmas
Posted by RollTide1987
Baltimore, MD
Member since Nov 2009
71158 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 5:07 am to
Posted by RebelExpress38
In your base, killin your dudes
Member since Apr 2012
14304 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 6:12 am to
quote:

One question: did Jesus leave us a Bible or did he leave us a church? Answer : he left us a church. The church gave us the Bible. It’s not the other way around as you seem to think the Bible is the ultimate authority but the Bible LITERALY says the church is the authority . So if you are correct and the Bible IS the ultimate authority, then listen to what it says and accept the church as the final authority. Really simple


Did the Church “give” us the Bible, or did the Church simply acknowledge what the Holy Spirit had already given us?

quote:

As A. A. Hodge states, when a peasant recognizes a prince and is able to call him by name, it does not give him the right to rule over the kingdom. In like fashion, a church council recognizing which books were God-breathed and possessed the traits of a God-inspired book, does not give the church council equal authority with those books.


The second a priest or pastor starts preaching things that go against the word in the Bible, because they themselves feel they have authority over it, is the second it’s time to find a new church.

When Jesus was preaching he constantly referred back to the OT. He himself can to fulfill that scripture. When there were disputes about “tradition” he referred back to scripture to settle debate. When he was in the wilderness with the devil, he quoted scripture to repel his advances. And on and on.

There are numerous examples of Jesus himself calling out the Jewish leaders for their traditions and how they went against scripture.

Mark 7:1-13

quote:

1Now when the Pharisees gathered to him, with some of the scribes who had come from Jerusalem, 2they saw that some of his disciples ate with hands that were defiled, that is, unwashed. 3(For the Pharisees and all the Jews do not eat unless they wash their hands properly, holding to the tradition of the elders, 4and when they come from the marketplace, they do not eat unless they wash. And there are many other traditions that they observe, such as the washing of cups and pots and copper vessels and dining couches.) 5And the Pharisees and the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to the tradition of the elders, but eat with defiled hands?” 6And he said to them, “Well did Isaiah prophesy of you hypocrites, as it is written, “‘This people honors me with their lips, but their heart is far from me;
7in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the commandments of men.’ 8You leave the commandment of God and hold to the tradition of men.”
9And he said to them, “You have a fine way of rejecting the commandment of God in order to establish your tradition! 10For Moses said, ‘Honor your father and your mother’; and, ‘Whoever reviles father or mother must surely die.’ 11But you say, ‘If a man tells his father or his mother, “Whatever you would have gained from me is Corban”’ (that is, given to God)— 12then you no longer permit him to do anything for his father or mother, 13thus making void the word of God by your tradition that you have handed down. And many such things you do.”


More on this.

quote:

Never does Jesus use religious tradition to support His actions or teachings. Before the writing of the New Testament, the Old Testament was the only inspired Scripture. However, there were literally hundreds of Jewish “traditions” recorded in the Talmud (a collection of commentary compiled by Jewish rabbis). Jesus and the apostles had both the Old Testament, and the Jewish tradition. Nowhere in Scripture does Jesus or any of the apostles appeal to the Jewish traditions. In contrast, Jesus and the apostles quote from or allude to the Old Testament hundreds of times. The Pharisees accused Jesus and the apostles of “breaking the traditions” (Matthew 15:2). Jesus responded with a rebuke: “And why do you break the command of God for the sake of your tradition?” (Matthew 15:3). The manner in which Jesus and the apostles distinguished between the Scriptures and tradition is an example for the church. Jesus specifically rebukes treating the “commandments of men” as doctrines (Matthew 15:9).

Posted by weptiger
Georgia
Member since Feb 2007
11798 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 7:00 am to
I am not Catholic, but if two males walk up holding hands during communion, request a blessing and the Priest grants it, is the Priest not blessing them jointly?

Is the Priest blessing the unrepentant males individually as it is not as if they are going to cease to be gay?

Posted by Mo Jeaux
Member since Aug 2008
63763 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 7:12 am to
quote:

What's interesting to me is that Catholics teach that the doctrines and dogmas of the RCC developed over many centuries yet always seem to take the full-fledged understanding of modern Catholics and anachronistically impose them back on the early church fathers


You do the same from your perspective.
Posted by Wing T
Joint Base Andrews, MD
Member since Aug 2022
595 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 12:05 pm to
quote:

I think Mary worship permeates the church, and many Catholics have a greater adoration for Mary and the Church organization than Jesus and his word.
I think they look down on people who put their faith in God’s word and who believe they can be saved and faithful outside the RCC. I think they discourage their laity from reading and studying the Bible, and instead, would prefer them to remain in ignorant bliss about God’s word and solely dependent on priests for all spiritual guidance.
That’s just a few things off the top of my head.

Amen!
Posted by Gham
Member since Nov 2023
306 posts
Posted on 12/21/23 at 12:30 pm to
The person surmising that would be a retard.
Posted by Zephyrius
Wharton, La.
Member since Dec 2004
9574 posts
Posted on 12/22/23 at 8:24 am to
After digging into the document and reading some news/ commentary regarding it I found this to be the best response from the British bishops/ clergy:

The British Confraternity of Catholic Clergy
It is in this context that we must assess the recent document Fiducia Supplicans – which proposes a call for discernment which may lead to bestowing blessings on those in same-sex or unmarried unions. We note the noble pastoral desire to assist people to move forward by renewal of life and the call to conversion, building on all aspects of natural good will and virtue. Nevertheless, we see no situation in which such a blessing of a couple could be properly and adequately distinguished from some level of approval. Thus, it would inevitably lead to scandal – to the individuals concerned – to those involved directly or indirectly in the blessing – or to the minister himself. Furthermore, we fear that the practice of these blessings would confuse the faithful over the actual theology of marriage and human sexuality. Indeed, from the comments in the media over the past few days, and from concerns passed on to us by the faithful, we can already see such misunderstandings. We believe that genuine charity always follows true doctrine and that such blessings would work against the legitimate care a priest owes is flock. With honest parresia and from our own experience as pastors we conclude that such blessings are pastorally and practically inadmissable.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/22/23 at 8:46 am to
quote:

Literally everything you have said in this post is factually incorrect
Not quite.

quote:

You said there was no council that determined the Old Testament scriptures and yet Jesus read from them.
You obviously do not know what the Septuagint is or where it came from. The Septuagint is the Bible that Jesus read from. It is the Greek translation of th Jewish Old Testament. It was commissioned by the Jewish authorities prior to Christ for the purpose of formalizing the books of the OT for the faithful Jewish community .
Septuagint is a numerical title assigned to this Bible to signify the 70 Jewish scholars who were commissioned to compile the true and full text of the OT.
I think you're a little off here. First, I'm very familiar with the LXX and its use by Jesus and the Apostles. Judea was a Roman territory and Koine Greek was the language of the Hellenized Jews at that time.

The Septuagint--according to tradition at least--was not commissioned by Jewish authorities. Again, according to tradition, it was commissioned by Ptolemy II Philadelphus who was Pharaoh of Egypt at the time, to translate the Scriptures into Greek.

I was factually true in my statement that there was no council that determined the OT Scriptures by the time of Christ. The LXX was not a church council that was formed for the purpose of determining what the Scriptures were. It was a translation project.

The translation project also included more books and writings than what Jews of antiquity like Josephus acknowledged as canonical. Interestingly enough, the Septuagint includes books that even the Roman Catholic church doesn't see as canonical (1 Esdras, 2 Esdras, 3 Maccabees, 4 Maccabees, Psalm 151, and Prayer of Manasseh).

quote:

Ironically the discovery of the Dead Sea scrolls confirmed the Catholic Churches use of the Septuagint as the correct version of the Old Testament.
Did they? Does Rome use all the texts that were part of the DSS?

quote:

This information is historical scientific fact acknowledged by Bible scholars universally both Jewish scholars and Protestant. It is an inconvenient truth that no one talks about because it is so embarrassing to the Protestant faith. If you don’t believe me please google Septuagint
So your argument is that Catholicism is correct with its inclusion of some books that were written as part of the non-prophetic period of time in Israel because those books are part of the Septuagint, and the Septuagint was what Jesus and the Apostles were familiar with, even though they would also have been familiar with other books of the Septuagint that Rome doesn't include in its canon?

I don't see how that's very embarrassing to the Protestant faith. I can see how that argument would be embarrassing to Catholics if they understood what they were saying.

The exclusion of any book from the Septuagint nullifies the entire argument you are making.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
46863 posts
Posted on 12/22/23 at 8:49 am to
quote:

One subject at a time. Let’s stick to the Septuagint before we move on to your poor interp of Jesus words.
I'm just calling out the context. When I heard Catholics speak of verses 51 and following, they do so absent the context from verses 1 and following, as if Jesus' statement about His flesh and blood are only linked to the context of the Last Supper rather than the immediate context of the miracle of the fish and loaves. They also take His words here literally but don't seem to want to do the same thing elsewhere in John where Jesus uses other "I am" statements.
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