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re: powerball odds - help me win my argument - posted pg 8
Posted on 1/13/16 at 1:41 pm to tigersint
Posted on 1/13/16 at 1:41 pm to tigersint
quote:
I say that no matter what your numbers are, your odds are 1 in roughly 300Million.
Ohrly? Thanks for the info. Even though it says right on the ticket
"POWERBALL GRAND PRIZE ODDS ARE 1 in 292,201,338"
Posted on 1/13/16 at 1:51 pm to sfdurst
quote:
300000000 times /104 drawings = ~2.9 million years
So yes if you play the same numbers (or any set of numbers) twice a week, you statistically would hit the Jackpot within the next 2.9 million years.
This is not true. It's a binomial probability problem, where the winning combinations are replaced when chosen. If each winning combo was removed, then yes.
If you mean "probably" as in greater than 50% chance, you may be right, but You would have to calculate it to see.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 3:48 pm to tigersint
So first day back of the last semester. And now my friend and others are still arguing with me claming that i an wrong.
Their argument :
That if you play the same numbers every week over the course of youur life, or for thousands of years then you will have greater odds of winning.
Their reasoning :
If you roll 2 dice then your odds of winning are 1/36. By having a quick pick you are rolling another dice every week and must have both the "quick pick dice" hit and have the "powerball dice" hit. Theoretically giving you a 1/36 chance (in dice terms)
They claim that by playing your same numbers every week you eliminate one dice roll and therefore eliminate one variable, so your odds over your lifetime of winning increase over time.
I say that this is not true, because your origional "lucky numbers" are in fact rollig a dice to pick them in the first place. Even holding them constant after that should not change your odds in my opinion
Can anyone give me a mathematical proof to disprover their theory.
Their argument :
That if you play the same numbers every week over the course of youur life, or for thousands of years then you will have greater odds of winning.
Their reasoning :
If you roll 2 dice then your odds of winning are 1/36. By having a quick pick you are rolling another dice every week and must have both the "quick pick dice" hit and have the "powerball dice" hit. Theoretically giving you a 1/36 chance (in dice terms)
They claim that by playing your same numbers every week you eliminate one dice roll and therefore eliminate one variable, so your odds over your lifetime of winning increase over time.
I say that this is not true, because your origional "lucky numbers" are in fact rollig a dice to pick them in the first place. Even holding them constant after that should not change your odds in my opinion
Can anyone give me a mathematical proof to disprover their theory.
This post was edited on 1/13/16 at 3:52 pm
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:01 pm to tigersint
tell them to roll the dice 100 times and try to guess what number it will land on each time. then tell them to roll the dice 100 times and see how many times it lands on the first combination they guess.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:10 pm to Hermit Crab
i told them that exact argument and they said thats if you are rolling one dice and its like rolling 2 dice.
i told them to pick a number and roll 100 dice or pick a random number every time and roll a dice and both will statistically result in a 1/6 win rate given luck/no luck
i told them to pick a number and roll 100 dice or pick a random number every time and roll a dice and both will statistically result in a 1/6 win rate given luck/no luck
This post was edited on 1/13/16 at 4:13 pm
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:14 pm to tigersint
Their error is that they're assuming (maybe not admittedly assuming it) that once the combination of numbers is used that it can't come up again. However, that's not the case and so each drawing is completely independent of the drawing that went before it.
The numbers you choose, even choosing the same ones over and over again are still just a dice roll.
The numbers you choose, even choosing the same ones over and over again are still just a dice roll.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:22 pm to BamaChemE
i told them that as well. Guess its hopeless and they all think im the wrong guy 
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:53 pm to tigersint
LINK
Click on the options button at the bottom to select your own numbers. Run it with quick-pick and with self-picked numbers multiple times and see.
I understand their thinking, but statistics don't lie. Their thinking is that it's easier for a moving object to hit an object at rest than for 2 moving objects to collide.
Click on the options button at the bottom to select your own numbers. Run it with quick-pick and with self-picked numbers multiple times and see.
I understand their thinking, but statistics don't lie. Their thinking is that it's easier for a moving object to hit an object at rest than for 2 moving objects to collide.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:56 pm to CubsFanBudMan
quote:
I understand their thinking, but statistics don't lie.
Right. This is also the reason that casinos put up the most recent roulette results...to get suckers to base their betting off of past results.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 4:59 pm to tigersint
quote:Honestly, if you are at this point, you should either show them this thread (may not want to for anonymity purposes) or you may just have to concede that they are completely unable or unwilling to understand the logic.
i told them that as well. Guess its hopeless and they all think im the wrong guy
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:04 pm to tigersint
quote:
Can anyone give me a mathematical proof to disprover their theory.
1. Pick 2 random numbers, between 1 and ~300,000,000.
2. What is the probability that you picked a number, the first time you picked a number between 1 and ~300,000,000? 100%
3. What is the probability that you picked the same number when you picked the second random number between 1 and ~300,000,000? 1/~300,000,000
The value of the first number is irrelevant. The probability is 1 time 1/~3000,000,000.
Picking the same number over and over does not affect the probability of individual discreet events.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:20 pm to tigersint
There are roughly 292,000,000 combinations.
If you bought all 292M combinations, you have a 292M/292M chance. With every amount of tickets that you buy below that, your odds decrease in that exact amount.
If you bought 162,000,000 non-repeating combinations, your odds are 162,000,000/292,000,000.
If you buy one ticket, it is 1/292,000,000.
How is this hard to understand?
If you bought all 292M combinations, you have a 292M/292M chance. With every amount of tickets that you buy below that, your odds decrease in that exact amount.
If you bought 162,000,000 non-repeating combinations, your odds are 162,000,000/292,000,000.
If you buy one ticket, it is 1/292,000,000.
How is this hard to understand?
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:26 pm to tigersint
to the OP. no matter what numbers you play, the odds are always the same.
The people who think if you play the same numbers they have to come up eventually do not understand probability.
If you flip a coin, the odds are always 50/50 that heads comes up.
People who bet big on black after red wins 14 times are wrong.
Black and red are equally possible every time.
and its not 50/50 to be black since there are two green numbers.
The people who think if you play the same numbers they have to come up eventually do not understand probability.
If you flip a coin, the odds are always 50/50 that heads comes up.
People who bet big on black after red wins 14 times are wrong.
Black and red are equally possible every time.
and its not 50/50 to be black since there are two green numbers.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:32 pm to BamaChemE
Exactly. If you flip a coin it's still the same probability for heads or tails each time.
ISDS 2000 taught me that
ISDS 2000 taught me that
This post was edited on 1/13/16 at 5:33 pm
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:35 pm to tigersint
quote:
If you roll 2 dice then your odds of winning are 1/36. By having a quick pick you are rolling another dice every week and must have both the "quick pick dice" hit and have the "powerball dice" hit. Theoretically giving you a 1/36 chance (in dice terms)
Like you said, either way you are rolling a second set of dice.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:42 pm to CelticDog
quote:
to the OP. no matter what numbers you play, the odds are always the same. The people who think if you play the same numbers they have to come up eventually do not understand probability. If you flip a coin, the odds are always 50/50 that heads comes up.
This
Posted on 1/13/16 at 5:48 pm to tigersint
The way that your post is worded is confusing me but I assume you are talking about the gambler's fallacy. Its why casinos put those boards up at the roulette table showing the previous numbers. People will look at it and see that it was black 5 times in a row and bet red. But in the reality, the previous rolls have nothing to do with the current one, the odds are still the same.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 6:00 pm to Cap Crunch
Especially when they hit that white button and the magnet makes the ball stop. 
Posted on 1/13/16 at 8:01 pm to tigersint
quote:
Besides, i dont need to learn any more about "liberal arts" from the piss poor english department that gave me professors who did not show up to class because they had a hangover. Engineering is the way to go.
No...All your posts are like this. I am an actual engineer. You barely understand basic math. Please stop with this Powerball bullshite.
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