re: The bible doesn't forbid homosexuality - the left

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Let’s say Jesus speaks in Aramaic. And then the writer of a New Testament book is writing in Greek. What’s the issue?

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Several.

First, was the Greek writer even present to hear Jesus, and did the Greek writer also speak Aramaic or was someone translating for him? How good was his translator, which affects how closely the writing reflects the concepts that Jesus was conveying in a completely different language.

Second, if the Greek writer was NOT present, how many DIFFERENT people passed the story one-to-next before someone tried to write it down?

Are there concepts or assumptions that underlie the Aramaic that are not present (or not important) in Koine Greek? How much do they affect the translation?

Etc.

sex as worship was all over the ancient world. and is not gone today imo. is an abomination. even after passover and leading them out of Egypt, they built a golden calf while Moses was on the mountain. pagan traditions seem to die hard. i also dont think its a coincidence that it was a calf idol. baal and molech are both represented as bulls.

is getting off topic, buttoo many Christians refuse to believe this kind or worship and idolatry is still going on. if you watch the eu games opening ceremony, you will see people appease a giant angry bull that had smoke from its nostrils. the elite are absolutley still carrying on such worship.

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immediately believes he's an expert.

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Nope. Just a student with a real interest in learning.

Unlike some, who seem willing to accept the predigested pabulum presented to them by others.

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You’re explaining Christian documents to Christians. And not all that well.

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If you think THAT'S something, wait til he starts lecturing black people about being black and gay people about being gay!

I think he's finally slipped his nut...

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Nope. Just a student with a real interest in learning.

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You are a wannabe teacher who will drone on endlessly about things he knows nothing about.

Your entire life is a cut and paste shtick bolstered by really poorly done, cherry-picked studies.

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It's a game to him. He wants to win the mental gymnastics by destroying (in his mind) the faith of Christians.

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Foo, you can have any faith you want to have. I literally do not care one iota what you believe. No skin off my nose.

The Bible is probably the most-important document ever written, for dozens of reasons. Trying to understand it is both interesting and important, in my view.

My efforts to understand it are historical, and yours are faith-based. Your approach does not bother me. Why does my approach bother you?

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First, was the Greek writer even present to hear Jesus, and did the Greek writer also speak Aramaic or was someone translating for him?

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This is not a problem of translation and therefore irrelevant to the proposition of the poster.

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How good was his translator, which affects how closely the writing reflects the concepts that Jesus was conveying in a completely different language.

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Greek was the lingua franca of the sitz im leben. There’s no need to assume a Xiche native in Guatemala couldn’t translate into Spanish. And I certainly wouldn’t assume an Aramaic-speaker in Judea couldn’t port an idea into Greek without more than a flight of fancy.

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Second, if the Greek writer was NOT present, how many DIFFERENT people passed the story one-to-next before someone tried to write it down?

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Another flight of fancy in two ways. Oral cultures are very, very good at transmission of tradition. Your bias towards a written culture doesn’t me anything other than you’re biased.

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Are there concepts or assumptions that underlie the Aramaic that are not present (or not important) in Koine Greek? How much do they affect the translation?

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I automatically sneer at anyone who uses “Koine Greek.” It’s Attic Greek. The Greek everyone spoke and wrote in the post-Classical age. The only people who use the phrase are people who took Bible college Greek or people who are reading about Bible college Greek.

I don't know about you guys, but I'm totally going to take my religious teaching from some random leftist in Twitter. She surely knows more than every preacher that I've ever listened to.

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CelticDog

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Wrong. If you didn’t know you were wrong you wouldn’t care. But clearly you do.

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Now the Persian and Babylonian influence? Absolutely. The Jews returned to Jerusalem speaking Aramaic, for one thing. And as we know, Aramaic was the language of Jesus 5 centuries later

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See, to me, that is the element that makes the "temple prostitute" theory hold at least SOME water. If the relevant passage was written DURING (or influenced BY events during) the Babylonian Captivity, it may involve temples and religions not of the Mediterranean, but instead of the Fertile Crescent and points east from there.

It is at least POSSIBLE that a Leviticus author was recording a concept developed when the exiled Jews (if they can yet be called that) were exposed on a daily basis in Babylon to the temples and practices any one or more of the polytheistic neo-Babylonian deities OR the religions of the myriad subject peoples within the neo-Babylonian empire.

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the insular Israelite culture

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This is where the terminology gets confusing for me. At this point in time (Babylonian and Hellenistic periods), the Northern Kingdom (Israel) had long been destroyed by the Assyrians. Judea remained. Do we still call them "Isrealites?" Judeans? proto-Jews? Can we finally start calling them "Jews," since the Second Temple is now being constructed and "Jew" is derived from "Judean" anyway? Maybe just semantics, but interesting anyway.