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re: Tell me if my thoughts on roulette are incorrect

Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:11 am to
Posted by DeathValley85
Member since May 2011
18155 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:11 am to
quote:

If you played $5 on the same number for 36 times($180/5=36 hands you can play) you would have a 94.7% probability to at least win your money back.


This is wrong. Your math is describing a scenario where once a number is hit, it can’t be hit again. This isn’t true.
Posted by Bagger Joe
Baton Rouge
Member since Mar 2014
853 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:13 am to
quote:

The odds of one roll hitting any number are the exact same regardless of all of the prior rolls. There is a reason they have that little sign up there with the previous 10 rolls.


The most useless piece of equipment in the casino.
Posted by shel311
McKinney, Texas
Member since Aug 2004
112441 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:13 am to
quote:

This is wrong. Your math is describing a scenario where once a number is hit, it can’t be hit again. This isn’t true.

Can someone update the actual probability of hitting your number at least once if you played 36 times?

Not sure how to do that.
Posted by shel311
McKinney, Texas
Member since Aug 2004
112441 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:14 am to
quote:

The most useless piece of equipment in the casino.
Based on the OP, it seems pretty useful...for casinos.
Posted by EA6B
TX
Member since Dec 2012
14754 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:14 am to
quote:

Every mathematician in the world disagrees with you.


If people understood math casinos would not exist.
Posted by LSUJuice
Back in Houston
Member since Apr 2004
17944 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:17 am to
1-((35/36)^36) = 63.7%
Posted by tigersnipen
Member since Dec 2006
2108 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:17 am to
Important fact about roulette probabilities.
The results of the next spin are never influenced by the results of previous spins.

Example.
The probability of the result being red on one spin of the wheel is 48.6%. That's easy enough.

Now, what if I told you that over the last 10 spins, the result had been black each time. What do you think the probability of the result being red on the next spin would be? Higher than 48.6%?

Wrong. The probability would be exactly 48.6% again.

Why?
The roulette wheel doesn't think "I've only delivered black results over the last 10 spins, I better increase the probability of the next result being red to even things up". Unfortunately, roulette wheels are not that thoughtful.

If you had just sat down at the roulette table and didn't know that the last 10 spins were black, you wouldn't have a hard time agreeing that the probability of seeing a red on the next spin is 48.6%. Yet if you are aware of recent results, you're tempted to let it affect your judgment.

Each and every result is independent of the last, so don't expect the results of future spins to be affected by the results you've seen over previous spins. If you can learn to appreciate this fact, you will save yourself from some disappointment (and frustration) in the future.

Believing that a certain result is "due" because of past results is known as the gambler's fallacy.

There is a 2.7% chance a number hits on every independent spin.

https://www.roulettestar.com/probability.php
This post was edited on 6/13/18 at 11:19 am
Posted by Fe_Mike
Member since Jul 2015
3562 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:22 am to
quote:

if black hits 10 times in a row, what is the probability that it will hit an 11th time in a row?


The probability that black hits 11 times in a row before the spins is something like .05% or something.

The probability that black hits 11 times in a row, after the 10th hit, is 47%.

You can't look at the odds in hindsight, it is only the present spin that matters.
Posted by shel311
McKinney, Texas
Member since Aug 2004
112441 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:24 am to
quote:

1-((35/36)^36) = 63.7%
Thanks
Posted by LCA131
Home of the Fake Sig lines
Member since Feb 2008
75083 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:25 am to
quote:

Why?
The roulette wheel doesn't think "I've only delivered black results over the last 10 spins, I better increase the probability of the next result being red to even things up". Unfortunately, roulette wheels are not that thoughtful


Things used to be nicer in our society. Back in the olden days.
Posted by FutureMikeVIII
Houston
Member since Sep 2011
1442 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:25 am to
quote:

Probability of a given number occurring in 38 spins is:
1 - ((37/38)^38) or 63.7%


I believe this is correct, except he wanted the probability of hitting at least once in 36 spins, so

1 - ((37/38)^36) = 61.7 %

Posted by Not Cooper
Member since Jun 2015
4946 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:26 am to
He's actually right, but his math is wrong. LSU Juice posted the correct probability of the situation the OP described.
Posted by diat150
Louisiana
Member since Jun 2005
46165 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:28 am to
quote:


The probability that black hits 11 times in a row before the spins is something like .05% or something.

The probability that black hits 11 times in a row, after the 10th hit, is 47%.

You can't look at the odds in hindsight, it is only the present spin that matters.


if you state it that way yes. regardless, if black has hit 10 times in a row red is likely not that far off.

the record for consecutive colors is 32. the odds of that happening are 24,230,084,485:1.

The record for the same number is 6 times. odds of that happening are 3,010,936,384:1.
Posted by castorinho
13623 posts
Member since Nov 2010
84642 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:29 am to
quote:

Not sure how to do that.

The math is easier when you think of it as the probability of never hitting your number. Then just subtract that number from 1
Posted by shel311
McKinney, Texas
Member since Aug 2004
112441 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:29 am to
quote:

if you state it that way yes. regardless, if black has hit 10 times in a row red is likely not that far off.

It's no more "far off" then if red had hit 10 times in a row.
Posted by LSUJuice
Back in Houston
Member since Apr 2004
17944 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:31 am to
Yeah I think I mixed up the 36 and the 38, but the percentage still comes out in the low 60s.
Posted by Giantkiller
the internet.
Member since Sep 2007
23521 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:31 am to
The casino never loses. Never. You can even think you leave a winner and they know they have you.
Posted by Fe_Mike
Member since Jul 2015
3562 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:32 am to
His probability is based on the assumption that every number can hit only once.

So his 95% is based on 38 numbers. 36 spins. Only 2 numbers on the board won't be hit in those 38 spins.

Which is just freaking ludicrous.

His odds would be more applicable if he were to say that he is going to bet on 34 different numbers for one spin.
Posted by moneyg
Member since Jun 2006
59585 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:34 am to
quote:

If you played $5 on the same number for 36 times($180/5=36 hands you can play) you would have a 94.7% probability to at least win your money back


Playing different numbers doesn't change your probability of winning in 36 spins.
Posted by Boudreaux35
BR
Member since Sep 2007
22281 posts
Posted on 6/13/18 at 11:36 am to
quote:

f you played $5 on the same number for 36 times($180/5=36 hands you can play) you would have a 94.7% probability to at least win your money back.


You're gonna have to explain this theory in more detail. Must be some new statistical law.
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