re: Is a secksless marriage reason enough for divorce?

if your wife is in the 50-60 y/o group, maybe a change of Dr. is in order? Mine would go to male GP's and it was always stress or this or that. Women Dr.s know what the hormone (or lack of) thing is about. Around here, for whatever reason, the OB-GYn's aren't really that concerned about that age group. More into the younger set.

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We men are dumb, simple creatures.

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It really isn't that difficult. Keep my stomach full and my balls empty, and I will burn down continents for you.

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there is NOTHING sexier than a sexually confident woman who is an equal in the sack.

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Footjob

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I guess I'm lucky.

My wife is 40 and we had sex twice yesterday.

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hope she doesnt have hormone issues later, they suck but just talk her into going to get tested if they do happen

as far as the comment from the other guy about a prostitute....bro most married men dont want to just frick a rando...they want to frick their wife, its how they feel connected in the relationship.

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there's a multitude of reasons with hormones being the biggest which can be from several causes

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It's funny how those hormone issues vanish after divorce when she's trying to snag a new husband.

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Is a secksless marriage reason enough for divorce?

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Yes, if the cause is her. But consider that carefully, because about half the men complaining about a lack of sex are the cause of it. You can’t ignore a woman all the time and then expect her to have sex with you.

Here are the antecedents for your question:

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1. Ancient Jewish law (Torah and later Talmud) * This is probably the clearest and most influential example. * In the Torah, Exodus 21:10 requires a husband to provide his wife with “food, clothing, and marital rights.” The Hebrew phrase (“onah”) was interpreted by later rabbis as the husband’s obligation to have sexual relations with his wife at prescribed intervals. * The Mishnah and Talmud later developed a reciprocal understanding of marriage. While the husband bore the primary legal duty to provide conjugal relations, a wife who persistently refused marital relations without recognized justification could, in some circumstances, lose financial rights under her marriage contract (ketubah) or be divorced. Conversely, a husband who refused sex could also be compelled to divorce his wife and pay the ketubah.

2. Code of Hammurabi (Babylon, c. 1750 BC) * The code does not explicitly make refusal of sex a ground for divorce. * It allows divorce under various circumstances and regulates the financial consequences, but there is no provision stating that a wife who withholds sex may be divorced on that basis alone.

3. Ancient Roman law * Roman marriage was understood to include a duty of marital cohabitation and fidelity. * There was no statute specifically saying “refusal of sex” justified divorce, but since divorce generally became relatively easy during the late Republic and Empire, persistent refusal could contribute to the breakdown of the marriage and be cited as a reason.

4. Ancient Greek law * Greek city-states had differing laws. * In classical Athens, a husband could usually divorce his wife without proving fault, so there was little need for a specific legal rule about withholding sex. * Sexual availability was nevertheless considered one of the expected duties of marriage.

5. Early Christian canon law * The New Testament, particularly 1 Corinthians 7:3–5, instructs husbands and wives not to deprive one another of sexual relations except by mutual consent for a limited time. * Medieval canon law generally treated marriage as involving mutual conjugal obligations. Rather than allowing ordinary divorce (which it largely prohibited), ecclesiastical courts could order spouses to resume cohabitation and fulfill marital duties.

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Is a secksless marriage reason enough for divorce?

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NO, but you may have a job in Congress

I don't understand your problem. She got the only one in town? Rent one by the hour or lease it by the month.