re: "reverse HIV" with vaccine. Laboratory findings...

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Lol. You can find it.

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I don't even need to look it up.

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There are some incredibly common intracellular pathogens that only appear in immunocompromised, as well as one disease I can think of that specifically relies on CD8 activation for part of its pathophysiology.

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Spit it out. You are trying to discredit him by saying he didn't mention in that or those in that video.

So which one is it that he needs to mention by name?

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If the data supports his stance, then his stance has merit at some level. The $cientific community withholding their support actually gives his report more credibility, not less.

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Then he should get around to showing his work, no? It has been more than 7 months.

Even one of the scientists whose report he tried to cite says he got it all wrong.

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I don't even need to look it up.

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Lol

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So which one is it that he needs to mention by name?

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You think there is only one? My god dude, do you understand the innate immune response for non-viruses will also invoke a CD8 response, especially if they enter the cytosol? Even those intracellular bacterial pathogens that hide in the phagolysosome to avoid oxidative burst will produce a cytokine response, specifically IL-12 which will direct the differentiation of Th1, which can interact directly with macrophages through CD40-CD40l, by secreting IFN-gamma, and through activation of NK cells, cytotoxic T cells, and if there is immunologic memory, induce memory B cells to produce IgG.

Given he's insisting upon a CD8 response specifically is an odd choice, to be frank.

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You think there is only one?

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No. My God "dude", I'm asking you a question that you seem unwilling to answer.

I will ask one last time before I move on. By name, which one would you need for him to mention in order to "validate it" for YOU.

Make a list? What, are you afraid that those may be on the list too.

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You dumb shite.

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I need him to answer why we aren't seeing an increase in every intracellular pathogen, not just viral ones, because there is massive molecular overlap between intermediate molecules that invoke a CD8 response between different pathogen types. How can an intracellular bacteria produce a CD8 response, but an intracellular virus not? If you knew anything about immunology, his assertion should make you question his argument, but alas, you don't understand immunology.

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Awe... poor crazy...


You will get over yourself. Maybe.


How do you know he hasn't stated that?

If you read 5 minutes beyond anything you already agree with you will find that this doctor has widely been denounced because, outside of his own claims, there isn’t any scientific evidence that supports the notion that mRNA vaccines cause autoimmune diseases. Basically scientific consensus says it’s nonsense. Then a quack comes along that you happen to agree with and you throw in with him. Classic confirmation bias.

If the long term side effects of the current Covid-19 vaccines prove to be substantial the same Marxists/leftists/NWO Globalists who are currently pushing the unconstitutional vaccine mandate will convince their sycophant sheep that the risk of a EUA vaccine was well worth the risk of long term side effects of the vaccine and the sheep will say.....Baaa....baaaaaa.

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How do you know he hasn't stated that?

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Lol. You aren't even understanding the argument I'm making. Going by his argument about other viruses, he isn't even making the most common associations for viral immunodeficiencies other than EBV, which has structural differences between CD21 binding between B cells and T cells, but is mostly in B cells.

He's making a bad argument, and you don't understand why.

Using Twitter.
Not even posting his data.
Parroting nonsense.

You've become the thing you hate.