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re: Does IVF create abortions?

Posted on 2/20/25 at 4:56 pm to
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
43850 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 4:56 pm to
quote:

Depends. There are no punctuation marks in the original Greek of Luke 23:42-43.

So the passage could be read as, “Truly, I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise.” On this reading, “today” refers not to when the good thief will be with Jesus in paradise, but to when Jesus tells the good thief that he will be with him in paradise.
Why would Jesus have to say "today" if He was referring to the day which He was talking to the thief rather than the day the the thief would be in paradise? That would have been redundant and grammatically nonsensical. Instead, the same grammar construction is used in Mark 14:30, where Jesus tells Peter that that day (that very night) he would deny Him three times. The Douay-Rheims also understands this phrase (in both instances, Mark 14 and Luke 23) as referring to that very same day. It's also why pretty much all English translations put the comma where they do. I believe the Jehovah's Witnesses prefer a translation like you are describing.

Even the online Latin Vulgate translates the English with the comma (colon, in that translation) before "today".

It also seems like the commentaries throughout church history have assumed a same-day interpretation of the thief's arrival in Paradise. At least I couldn't find any that indicated that Jesus was referring only to His words given on that day, as you seem to be indicating. Perhaps you would like to support your view from history so I can better understand the evidence.

quote:

This would make the most sense since Jesus later tells the disciples after the resurrection that he had not yet gone into his kingdom.
He said He had not yet ascended to His Father (John 20:17), which was true. His bodily ascension didn't happen for another month after His resurrection, as recounted in Luke 24, Mark 16, and Acts 1. That doesn't mean Jesus' spirit wasn't in Paradise the day of His death.
Posted by Stitches
Member since Oct 2019
1194 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 5:20 pm to
I didn't say that was the only or even most orthodox interpretation, only that's its a possible one, and one which makes sense given the context of how Christian's define the term "paradise" vs how Protestant Christian's define it.

Some (a minority) Protestant Christian's typically define it as being synonymous with Heaven, whereas Christian's typically define it as Sheol/Hades/Abraham's bosom.

So in light of the unhistoric definition of the term Paradise, Jesus definitely wasn't telling the good thief that he was immediately going to Heaven after he died.

But the point of my response was to show the responder that it's anachronistic to use the good thief as an example of the unhistoric and unbiblical "new testament doctrine of sola fide" when the good thief didn't die under the new covenant. And even if he did, it's kind of ridiculous to expect the good thief to uncrucify himself so that he can climb down off the cross, get baptized, complete his faith with good works, and then climb back up to put the nails back in before he dies.

This post was edited on 2/20/25 at 5:24 pm
Posted by DanW1
Member since Jan 2013
1118 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 5:33 pm to
You can literally check a box to donate the unused embryos to other couples, it wasn't a hard decision at all for us. But we only got 4 embryos and intend to try each one.

One was unsuccessful, one successful. We're trying again in a few months.

Sure you can see ivf as creating abortions by those who discard but it's definitely not the only option.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
43850 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 6:11 pm to
quote:

I didn't say that was the only or even most orthodox interpretation, only that's its a possible one, and one which makes sense given the context of how Christian's define the term "paradise" vs how Protestant Christian's define it.
If most if not all of the translators translate it a certain way, and the grammar aligns with at least one other text that directs its usage (BTW, there are many other verses where Jesus uses "truly" and the comma is inserted similarly based on that usage, as well), then wouldn't what "makes sense" be that which is best aligned with the context of the writings, themselves? It seems that's the path most commonly trod even in church history.

quote:

Some (a minority) Protestant Christian's typically define it as being synonymous with Heaven, whereas Christian's typically define it as Sheol/Hades/Abraham's bosom.

So in light of the unhistoric definition of the term Paradise, Jesus definitely wasn't telling the good thief that he was immediately going to Heaven after he died.
There is good reason for the synonymy. Immediately after telling the thief that he will be with Christ in Paradise, Jesus said that He was committing His spirit to the hands of the Father. Obviously the Father doesn't have literal hands, but seems clear that Jesus was going to Heaven, where the Father resides, as is shown by countless verses in the NT that say that the Father is in Heaven (including the Lord's Prayer).

Even Roman Catholics who misapply the prayers of the saints in Revelation 4 can't deny that the vision seen was in Heaven, not some other, distinct place called Paradise. So at least at that point of the vision, it was understood that the resting place of the saved was in glory, in Heaven.

It may be possible that "Paradise" was separate from Heaven, but the Scriptures don't really paint that picture in context. Paul equates "Paradise" with "the third heaven" in 2 Cor. 12, after telling the Corinthian church that to be absent from the body (in death) is to be present with the Lord (5:6-8). Since Jesus ascended into Heaven just 40 days after His resurrection and Christians should expect to be with Him in absence from their bodies, then at most, if Paradise was separate from Heaven, then it was only so for a short while after Jesus' death.

Regardless, wherever Jesus went when He died, the thief was there that very day.

quote:

But the point of my response was to show the responder that it's anachronistic to use the good thief as an example of the unhistoric and unbiblical "new testament doctrine of sola fide" when the good thief didn't die under the new covenant. And even if he did, it's kind of stupid to expect the good thief to uncrucify himself so that he can get down off the cross, get baptized, complete his faith with good works, and then climb back up to put the nails back in before he dies.
You assume Catholic dogmas are true which is why you said what you said here.

First, sola fide is not "unhistoric" nor "unbiblical", but quite the opposite. What's anachroistic is taking the modern beliefs of Rome and forcing them back on the ECFs to make them fit neatly into Rome's false doctrines. I won't suggest that all the ECFs were "Protesant", because they were wholly a mixed bag with a lot of undeveloped doctrine and even contradictions within their own thinking at times, but they certainly didn't reflect unity with what the Roman Catholic church teaches in 2025. In fact, there were many who belonged to the Roman church prior to the Council of Trent that believed in salvation by faith in Christ alone. It wasn't until the 1500's that Rome banned that sort of thinking.

And second, there's no reason to expect the thief to get down off the cross and get baptized, perform any other good works, and then die on the cross. The point of looking to the thief as an example of salvation by faith alone as taught by the Scriptures is precisely that his faith was sufficient for Jesus to tell him that he was saved (that he would be in Heaven/Paradise that very day), without being baptized or doing any other good works. That's precisely why I've seen that ridiculous idea bandied about by Catholics that the thief was actually a follower of Christ already and that he was already baptized before being crucified, because he needed to be baptized according to your own teachings.
Posted by Stitches
Member since Oct 2019
1194 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:19 pm to
quote:

First, sola fide is not "unhistoric" nor "unbiblical"


Yes it is, because nobody taught it prior to some medieval heretics, and that's also because it isn't taught in scripture. In fact, faith alone is only mentioned once, in James 2 where it's quite literally negated.

quote:

What's anachroistic is taking the modern beliefs of Rome and forcing them back on the ECFs to make them fit neatly into Rome's false doctrines.


You are astonishingly bad at this.

quote:

I won't suggest that all the ECFs were "Protesant"


Good, because they weren't. They were Catholic/Orthodox.

quote:

because they were wholly a mixed bag with a lot of undeveloped doctrine and even contradictions within their own thinking at times,


They were extremely united on matters pertaining to eucharist, baptism, justification, authority, structure, christology, and pretty much anything considered a core doctrine. There were some who disagreed with others on certain teachings, but when the church spoke on a specific doctrinal disagreement, they considered the matter settled and sided with whatever the church discerned.

quote:

but they certainly didn't reflect unity with what the Roman Catholic church teaches in 2025.


The church teaches the same thing now that it did in 100AD, except with more clarity, so yes they would be united on matters which have been clarified or dogmatized.

quote:

In fact, there were many who belonged to the Roman church prior to the Council of Trent that believed in salvation by faith in Christ alone


Name a few who weren't heretics like Luther, Zwingli, and Calvin precisely because they believed in sola fide.

quote:

The point of looking to the thief as an example of salvation by faith alone


Is to anachronisticly and eisegetically read the doctrine into the scriptures, precisely because it doesn't exist in there, except in James 2 where it is explicitly negated.

quote:

he needed to be baptized according to your own teachings.


Do you listen to James White a lot? He's the only other person I know of besides you who just straight up gets catholic teachings completely wrong this often.









This post was edited on 2/20/25 at 8:22 pm
Posted by Dick Jacket
Member since Nov 2016
1506 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:21 pm to
quote:

We have two embryos, and we are going to use them because I feel obligated not to leave one behind.


Same situation. Same decision.
Posted by SallysHuman
With Sally
Member since Jan 2025
2539 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:26 pm to
quote:

In summary. If multiple sins are committed even with the end intent to do good and create a new human life. Is this still ethical? Christians celebrate new life, but the teachings are pretty clear about the path being narrow.


I agree with your line of thinking.

However, I never struggled to either get pregnant nor carry a pregnancy to term. I feel that my 'absolute' thinking on this is colored by the fact I've never struggled in this department.

I know there are babies ready to be adopted- I've heard that's a long, expensive process though... if it's more expensive than IVF I can understand why having IVF as a route to a baby is something people would want.
Posted by VOR
Member since Apr 2009
65526 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:30 pm to
Unless someone is an extreme radical nut, they won’t equate IVF with abortion.
Posted by burger bearcat
Member since Oct 2020
9949 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:36 pm to
quote:

Unless someone is an extreme radical nut, they won’t equate IVF with abortion.


Are you able to actually dispute the original claims of the OP? Or do you think your side merely wins because it my be more favorable to the current zeitgeist and you can use shame towards anyone questioning the narrative?
Posted by Deplorable5046
Member since Nov 2019
70 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:37 pm to
Is sperm a life? No
Is an egg a life? No
Is a sperm and an egg together life? No
Until the zygote is successfully attached to the uterus wall and starts to grow and develop it is not a life.
Ejaculation is not abortion!
Menstrual Cycle is not abortion!
Miscarriage is not abortion!
Simple common sense people!
Posted by burger bearcat
Member since Oct 2020
9949 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:52 pm to
quote:

Is sperm a life? No
Is an egg a life? No
Is a sperm and an egg together life? No
Until the zygote is successfully attached to the uterus wall and starts to grow and develop it is not a life.
Ejaculation is not abortion!
Menstrual Cycle is not abortion!
Miscarriage is not abortion!
Simple common sense people!


Sperm and eggs cannot grow into anything by themselves.

An embryo is a unique life with the exact same unique DNA that it will have if the embryo grows to an adult person. It will only grow into a Ln adult person of left uninterrupted on its natural life cycle.
Posted by the808bass
The Lou
Member since Oct 2012
119713 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:55 pm to
quote:

So the passage could be read as, “Truly, I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise.” On this reading, “today” refers not to when the good thief will be with Jesus in paradise, but to when Jesus tells the good thief that he will be with him in paradise.

Bahahahhahahahah
Posted by Kattail
Member since Aug 2020
3935 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 8:57 pm to
Used or donated
Posted by Azkiger
Member since Nov 2016
25212 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 9:00 pm to
quote:

Sperm and eggs cannot grow into anything by themselves.


A zygote can't either. It needs the mother, it needs to attach to the uterus.

Implantation is where I draw the line because of this.
Posted by burger bearcat
Member since Oct 2020
9949 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 10:44 pm to
quote:

A zygote can't either. It needs the mother, it needs to attach to the uterus.

Implantation is where I draw the line because of this.


This is the same argument that pro-abortionists make. Location does not make it any less of a human life. They would argue that because an 8 week old baby in utero cannot survive without its mother, it is not equal to humans who can survive out of the womb

You have to draw the line somewhere when a human is a human and when they are not. The only clear, definitive line where someone is a unique life form with a unique DNA, where if sent on its natural life cycle will continue to being a full grown adult human, and that is at conception.
This post was edited on 2/20/25 at 10:47 pm
Posted by Azkiger
Member since Nov 2016
25212 posts
Posted on 2/20/25 at 10:56 pm to
quote:

This is the same argument that pro-abortionists make.


I can see why you think that.

quote:

Location does not make it any less of a human life.


I never said that it did.

quote:

They would argue that because an 8 week old baby in utero cannot survive without its mother, it is not equal to humans who can survive out of the womb


But it has it's mother, so it can survive. The zygote has attached and has developed into an embryo, and is nearly a fetus. So no, you can't dismember it.

quote:

You have to draw the line somewhere when a human is a human and when they are not. The only clear, definitive line where someone is a unique life form with a unique DNA, where if sent on its natural life cycle will continue to being a full grown adult human, and that is at conception.


I agree. But seeing as not allowing implantation is completely different than dismemberment, those actions should be viewed differently as well.
Posted by lionward2014
New Orleans
Member since Jul 2015
12634 posts
Posted on 2/21/25 at 12:35 am to
quote:

Are the 10 Commandments not valid? The 1st being you shall have no false gods? Playing God and attempting to end run around the natural process is just tha


The Big Guy has a funny way of showing his disgust then because after our first child was born through IVF my wife got naturally pregnant for our 2nd.
Posted by TenWheelsForJesus
Member since Jan 2018
9132 posts
Posted on 2/21/25 at 12:56 am to
IVF creates life. I can't rationalize calling myself pro-life while denying other couples the chance to reproduce and create a family.

Many people on this board say that we have a birth rate problem. So, it wouldn't make sense to be against IVF in this regard either.

The moral objection is flimsy to me. It reminds me of people who don't celebrate Christmas because it's pagan. It's just going overboard as I doubt God has a problem with loving couples starting a family with a little help.

If it's immoral to destroy an unused embryo, then wouldn't it also be immoral for a couple struggling to conceive to continue getting pregnant when they know the likely outcome is a miscarriage? The result is the same - intentional fertilization while knowing the chance of a birth is unlikely. If it's the outcome that is wrong, then both are wrong. If it's the intent that matters, to create life, then it's hard to argue that one is right and one is wrong simply based on how the embryo was fertilized.
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
43850 posts
Posted on 2/21/25 at 2:39 pm to
quote:

Yes it is, because nobody taught it prior to some medieval heretics, and that's also because it isn't taught in scripture. In fact, faith alone is only mentioned once, in James 2 where it's quite literally negated.
You can find the biblical teaching all the way back to 1 Clement, where it says:

For of Jacob are all the priests and levites who minister unto the altar of God; of him is the Lord Jesus as concerning the flesh; of him are kings and rulers and governors in the line of Judah; yea and the rest of his tribes are held in no small honor, seeing that God promised saying, Thy seed shall be as the stars of heaven. They all therefore were glorified and magnified, not through themselves or their own works or the righteous doing which they wrought, but through His will. And so we, having been called through His will in Christ Jesus, are not justified through ourselves or through our own wisdom or understanding or piety or works which we wrought in holiness of heart, but through faith, whereby the Almighty God justified all men that have been from the beginning; to whom be the glory for ever and ever. Amen. -1 Clem. 32:2-4

Chrysostom wrote, What does he mean when he says: “I have declared your justice?” He did not simply say: “I have given,” but “I have declared.” What does this mean? That he has justified our race not by right actions, not by toils, not by barter and exchange, but by grace alone. Paul, too, made this clear when he said: “But now the justice of God has been made manifest independently of the Law.” But the justice of God comes through faith in Jesus Christ and not through any labor and suffering -Discourses Against Judaizing Christians, Disc. 7.3.2

There are many more similar statements like that.

This is what Jesus taught when He said that whoever believes in Him will not perish but will have eternal life (John 3:16), or when He said Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life (John 5:24). There are more references I could provide, but the bottom line is that Jesus taught that works were a fruit of abiding in Him--the true vine--by faith, and that faith alone justifies (John 15, Matthew 7).

Like I said, it's biblical and historical.

quote:

You are astonishingly bad at this.
The truth of this is demonstrated by you and other Catholics on this board time and time again. Do you affirm Vatican I? It claimed that papal infallibility was the custom of the church throughout all ages, yet history absolutely demonstrates that to be false. Claims like that are made to support the notion that the modern Roman Catholic church is absolutely the same since the time of the Apostles to bolster your claims of authority over all Christians, but history (and most importantly, the Scriptures) do not bear that out.

quote:

They were extremely united on matters pertaining to eucharist, baptism, justification, authority, structure, christology, and pretty much anything considered a core doctrine. There were some who disagreed with others on certain teachings, but when the church spoke on a specific doctrinal disagreement, they considered the matter settled and sided with whatever the church discerned.
There's too much wrong in this statement to parse out in this response (there's a character limit), but just to highlight "authority" for a second: that was absolutely not true for centuries. The ECFs provide much evidence that not only was their not an infallible singular episcopate found in Rome, that the bishop of Rome wasn't even a central figure in decisions for centuries. He wasn't uniquely consulted about matters, either, as several of the other bishoprics were also consulted for decisions or guidance, and the bishop of Rome didn't even call or preside over the first 7 councils that met. Not only that, but there was pushback against the bishop of Rome at times, where the authority of councils or other bishops were highlighted against the singular authority of the bishop of Rome. Vatican I lays out a clear understanding of the authority of the Pope and that understanding was wholly unheard of in the early church.

When you say that had disagreements on certain teachings, that was my point. They did, and I'm glad you acknowledge it.

quote:

The church teaches the same thing now that it did in 100AD, except with more clarity, so yes they would be united on matters which have been clarified or dogmatized.
Another false statement. Can you show me evidence of the bodily assumption of Mary in 100AD, 200AD, or even 300AD?

quote:

Name a few who weren't heretics like Luther, Zwingli, and Calvin precisely because they believed in sola fide.
Wessel Gansfort is a good example of a "proto-protestant" who had differing views from Rome's current teachings on justification, purgatory, the papacy, and other doctrines that were highlighted in the Reformation. Girolamo Savonarola was another contemporary of Gansfort who actually agreed with much of Rome's teachings at the time but also had a higher view of the Scriptures and it influenced his beliefs about justification, which Luther and possibly Calvin were influenced by as being similar to their own views.

quote:

Is to anachronisticly and eisegetically read the doctrine into the scriptures, precisely because it doesn't exist in there, except in James 2 where it is explicitly negated.
Pot, meet kettle. Catholicism would look nothing like it does if it weren't for extra-biblical beliefs being foisted upon the Scriptures.

That said, it's not anachronistic or eisegesis to read the words of Jesus and Paul in particular and come to the conclusion of the doctrine of sola fide. I know your argument is bad when you have to rely on the fact that the phrase "faith alone" is not in the Bible, except in James 2, because that's not how doctrines are exclusively derived. Just like the word "Trinity" is not in the Bible, but the concept is, so, too, are the reformation solas derived from the Bible.

BTW, James 2 clarifies the type of faith that doesn't save, which is the type that is intellectual assent only (which the demons have). Clearly the demons do not trust in Jesus Christ by faith alone to save them.

quote:

Do you listen to James White a lot? He's the only other person I know of besides you who just straight up gets catholic teachings completely wrong this often.
I've listened to a bit of White in the past but no, I'm not channeling James White in order to discuss these things.

The Catholic Catechism says that "The Lord himself affirms that Baptism is necessary for salvation.60 He also commands his disciples to proclaim the Gospel to all nations and to baptize them.61 Baptism is necessary for salvation for those to whom the Gospel has been proclaimed and who have had the possibility of asking for this sacrament.62 The Church does not know of any means other than Baptism that assures entry into eternal beatitude; this is why she takes care not to neglect the mission she has received from the Lord to see that all who can be baptized are “reborn of water and the Spirit.” God has bound salvation to the sacrament of Baptism, but he himself is not bound by his sacraments."

So all of that to say that you, yourself, seem to be buying into this thought that the thief needed to be baptized, too, as you said, "And even if he did, it's kind of stupid to expect the good thief to uncrucify himself so that he can get down off the cross, get baptized, complete his faith with good works, and then climb back up to put the nails back in before he dies"
Posted by FooManChoo
Member since Dec 2012
43850 posts
Posted on 2/21/25 at 4:07 pm to
quote:

IVF creates life. I can't rationalize calling myself pro-life while denying other couples the chance to reproduce and create a family.

Many people on this board say that we have a birth rate problem. So, it wouldn't make sense to be against IVF in this regard either.

The moral objection is flimsy to me. It reminds me of people who don't celebrate Christmas because it's pagan. It's just going overboard as I doubt God has a problem with loving couples starting a family with a little help.

If it's immoral to destroy an unused embryo, then wouldn't it also be immoral for a couple struggling to conceive to continue getting pregnant when they know the likely outcome is a miscarriage? The result is the same - intentional fertilization while knowing the chance of a birth is unlikely. If it's the outcome that is wrong, then both are wrong. If it's the intent that matters, to create life, then it's hard to argue that one is right and one is wrong simply based on how the embryo was fertilized.
I would ask you consider the reasonableness of your argument here. Saying that the outcome being the same makes the actions the same is just not how the Scriptures teach regarding sin. For instance, there seems to be a clear teaching that if you kill a person in self-defense, that such an act may be justified whereas killing someone in the broad light of day and in cold blood is murder and sinful. Or, to have sex with your spouse is permitted and even encouraged while having sex with a prostitute is sinful. In both instances, the end result is the same (death of a person and a sex act performed), but the contexts really do matter for their moral rightness.

Likewise, I have to take exception with the logic behind the sameness of having sex that may result in a pregnancy and subsequent miscarriage and going through the IVF process where fertilized eggs are destroyed purposefully. Similar to murder vs. self-defense or accidental manslaughter, the intent in the process matters. Sex in marriage is good and even commanded by God in His word, and the intent to procreate through that natural process is also good, even if it results in many natural miscarriages. God is ultimately in control of the life and death of every living creature, including the unborn, so He has the prerogative to give and take life as creator, but we do not. There is a fundamental distinction between miscarriage without intent and engaging in a process where you know fertilized eggs will be destroyed. Intent really does matter, and so does God's actions and purposes compared to our own.

Logically, if life begins at conception--as most pro-lifers believe--then to engage in the purposeful destruction of a conceived child at any stage of development would be "abortive" and, logically, "murder" according to God's law, at least, and contrary to the pro-life stance. If a person wants to remain logically consistent with the value of the child being in its existence, not in its utility, dependency, development, etc., then that consistency may result in some emotionally difficult scenarios.
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