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re: Where does 400 years of slavery come from?

Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:15 am to
Posted by WeeWee
Member since Aug 2012
46011 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:15 am to
quote:

Where does 400 years of slavery come from?
Maybe I'm terrible at math, but my calculations don't go that high.


SJWs are counting from Columbus to MLK.
Posted by cubsfan5150
NWA
Member since Nov 2007
18975 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:16 am to
Not America's problem.
Posted by Jakesonaplane
Denver
Member since Nov 2010
7313 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:20 am to
quote:

Egyptians were enslaving jews literally thousands of years before that


And now the Jews control basically everything. They didn't whine that they deserved handouts. They buckled down and worked their way to the top
This post was edited on 6/25/15 at 9:42 am
Posted by LeonPhelps
Member since May 2008
8185 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:31 am to
quote:

1865-1492=373 which rounds up to 400.


First English colony - the actual beginning of the United State of America - was established around 1600. I don't think it had slaves originally, but let's assume it did. 1865-1600 = 265. That is the maximum amount of time the English colonies in the New World/United States of America had slaves.

A quick Google search reveals the first slaves in the colonies were in 1655. So slavery lasted 210 years in the United States or its predecessor. 210 years too long to be sure, but 210 does not equal 400.
Posted by Rhino5
Atlanta
Member since Nov 2014
30970 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:33 am to
African kings sold their own African slaves to European settlers who brought them to the Americas in the 1600s. The African kings profited huge from selling their slaves. This is well documented.
This post was edited on 6/25/15 at 9:34 am
Posted by cubsfan5150
NWA
Member since Nov 2007
18975 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:34 am to
Bingo, and I don't give a frick how long anyone else enslaved anyone. America sure didn't enslave for anywhere near 400 years.

Posted by Dick Leverage
In The HizHouse
Member since Nov 2013
9000 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:35 am to
Yes! For guns! For guns! Ban guns now.
Posted by FelicianaTigerfan
Comanche County
Member since Aug 2009
26059 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:38 am to
quote:

1865-1492=373 which rounds up to 400.


No slaves sold in America until mid 1600s

quote:

Also, slavery of Africans by Europeans existed prior on the Canary Islands (which first began roughly around 1402).


im an Islanos and have traced my family history to late 1700's coming from the Canary Islands. These islands were conquered every couple hundred years by many different countries with different ethnicities. During the migration to America it was a Spanish colony. Ive also had my DNA analyzed and im less that 1% African American so to say Canary Islanders were Africans is false.
Posted by eddieray
Lafayette
Member since Mar 2006
19528 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:38 am to
quote:

e. America sure didn't enslave for anywhere near 400 years.


210 years is way better
Posted by brodeo
Member since Feb 2013
1850 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:40 am to
quote:

Ive also had my DNA analyzed and im less that 1% African American so to say Canary Islanders were Africans is false.


Canary Islanders aren't Africans. Africans were brought to the Canary Islands during colonization to harvest sugar cane just like they were to the Caribbean.
Posted by JudgeHolden
Gila River
Member since Jan 2008
18621 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:41 am to
Does it matter? One day of slavery, of treating people like property because of the color of their skin, is wrong. Period.

It's like the difference between the systemic extermination of three million Jews rather than six million Jews. Morally, there is no difference.
Posted by Tigris
Cloud Cuckoo Land
Member since Jul 2005
13237 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:41 am to
quote:

1865-1492


The choice of 1492 is absurd.
Posted by Mung
Ba’on Rooj
Member since Aug 2007
9536 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:43 am to
Columbus started enslaving the indios shortly after arrival. Sadly, they died in droves, while the imported africans did better, so that system was used.
From HuffPo:
quote:

Columbus wasn't a hero. When he set foot on that sandy beach in the Bahamas on October 12, 1492, Columbus discovered that the islands were inhabited by friendly, peaceful people called the Lucayans, Taínos and Arawaks. Writing in his diary, Columbus said they were a handsome, smart and kind people. He noted that the gentle Arawaks were remarkable for their hospitality. "They offered to share with anyone and when you ask for something, they never say no," he said. The Arawaks had no weapons; their society had neither criminals, prisons nor prisoners. They were so kind-hearted that Columbus noted in his diary that on the day the Santa Maria was shipwrecked, the Arawaks labored for hours to save his crew and cargo. The native people were so honest that not one thing was missing. Columbus was so impressed with the hard work of these gentle islanders, that he immediately seized their land for Spain and enslaved them to work in his brutal gold mines. Within only two years, 125,000 (half of the population) of the original natives on the island were dead.
Posted by cubsfan5150
NWA
Member since Nov 2007
18975 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:43 am to
Theoretically it's just over half as bad.

Regardless, I want to know why people say 400 years instead of 200+.
Posted by brodeo
Member since Feb 2013
1850 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:46 am to
quote:

The choice of 1492 is absurd.


Is it? Columbus enslaved natives almost immediately after walking off the boat. On subsequent trips back to America, he brought African slaves with him. That would push the year up a little, but slavery in the Americas started with Columbus. Slavery in what would become the United States Of America didn't happen for another 150 years +
Posted by 995webmaster
New Orleans
Member since Dec 2007
3780 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:46 am to
New World slave trade started not long after Columbus discovered America in 1492. So say ~1500

Cuba was the last country in the Western hemisphere to outlaw slavery following the Spanish-American war in 1898. So say ~1900.

Even you should be able to handle the math...

But just in case you went to a Louisiana public school, 1900 - 1500 = 400.

Posted by Sparkplug#1
Member since May 2013
7352 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:46 am to
Cause Bob Marley
Posted by tgrgrd00
Kenner, LA
Member since Jun 2004
11683 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:48 am to
quote:

One day of slavery, of treating people like property because of the color of their skin,


They could have been purple and they would have been used as slaves. The color of their skin had nothing to do with it. It was the availability of the slaves BECAUSE THEIR OWN PEOPLE WERE SELLING THEM.

It was the best market for slaves because the black leaders were selling the black people. The slave owners would have bought purple people if they were as available.

This post was edited on 6/25/15 at 9:55 am
Posted by Catman88
Baton Rouge, LA
Member since Dec 2004
49125 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:52 am to
So they count Indian slavery and not African slavery? That wasn't even on current US territory? shite why not count the slavery from ancient Mesopotamia?

Posted by Peazey
Metry
Member since Apr 2012
25428 posts
Posted on 6/25/15 at 9:55 am to
From a factual and honest description of real history, there is a difference. If there was no difference in the message then why lie about it?
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