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re: No Murder Charge for Robber Who Allegedly Shot Clerk Dead

Posted on 12/2/22 at 1:39 pm to
Posted by oogabooga68
Member since Nov 2018
27194 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 1:39 pm to
You are a liar.

You called young Rittenhouse a murderer.
Posted by RogerTheShrubber
Juneau, AK
Member since Jan 2009
260573 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 1:40 pm to
quote:


You called young Rittenhouse a murderer.


Hes autistic and cannot understand the meaning of things not in legal terms

He even fricked up the legal term
Posted by lsufball19
Franklin, TN
Member since Sep 2008
64662 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 1:58 pm to
Here's the biggest problem for the prosecutor dismissing the case, especially the reason given for doing so....the prosecutor is telling us that had the clerk lived, he could have been charged with aggravated assault and/or attempted murder and murder if he had killed the robber. If the robber was acting in self-defense, that's saying the clerk was the primary aggressor and not within his rights to do what he did. So had he lived, we'd be looking at the robber getting off and the clerk who was robbed being charged with a class A felony. That is the justice system in California.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Carolinas
Member since Sep 2003
123929 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 2:20 pm to
quote:

Seems like this is something the jury should decide, not the prosecutor.
Indeed.
But tell that to the Keltner family, after Doloff murdered Lee Keltner



Tell it to Ashli Babbitt's after her murder in the Capitol.



Justice is not impartial. (D)ifferent cases are (D)ealt with (D)ifferently
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 4:17 pm to
quote:

I tend to not post in the threads where I agree with the majority, because it is boring.
quote:

Which is why youre in every tranny/child, or pedo thread. You're a true believer.

A “true believer” in the positions that I actually argue? Yes

In the hystrical, histrionic hyperbole that you people attribute to me? No

Example of actual position
A parent should get to decide whether his or her child has a story read to the child by a man wearing a dress.

Hysterical histrionic hyperbole
“Reeeeee!!! You support trannies diddling little kids!!! Reeeee!!”

On and on it goes, on issue after issue. You people clutch your pearls so tightly that one wonders how you’re able to breathe.

This post was edited on 12/2/22 at 4:53 pm
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 4:25 pm to
quote:

If you look closely, you’ll see that I only participate in maybe 10 or 15% of threads.
quote:

Interesting observations… they appear to all be in support of grooming by my experience

Your experience is clearly limited. You see “grooming“ where none exists. I suspect that you also see scary monsters under your bed.

I tend to participate in threads related to interesting legal issues.

For the most part, the posters on this forum are Statists to the core of their being, with a strong desire to impose their mores upon those who do not share them.

I tend to me more an “individual rights” kind of guy.
Posted by countrytiger60
Larose
Member since Sep 2018
3634 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 4:56 pm to
well I can tell you that if it were my family member that was killed, that guy would be a dead man walking!
Posted by UncleFestersLegs
Member since Nov 2010
10829 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:00 pm to
quote:

responded, somewhat sarcastically, “because he committed a murder?“
so he was a murderer according to you. No trial. No presumption of innocence. No further questions.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Carolinas
Member since Sep 2003
123929 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:02 pm to
quote:

A parent should get to decide whether his or her child has a story read to the child by a man wearing a dress.
Interesting from a peds-psych perspective.

So IYO, what are the limits, and why?

Staged S&M w/ no nudity?
Straight strip shows?
Tranny strip shows?
R-rated movies?
X-rated movies?
XXX-rated movies?
Attending NAMBLA meetings?

Or do you just prefer parental limits to kids being subjected to induced gender confusion?
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:04 pm to
I said that he killed two people, that he was legally justified and that he would not be convicted.

How is this confusing?
Posted by ItNeverRains
37069
Member since Oct 2007
25464 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:08 pm to
quote:

Depending upon local law, I can see an argument that his fleeing the scene might mean that the crime of theft was complete and that the shots fired at him as he was fleeing become a separate attempted assault by the clerk. If so, self-defense WOULD perhaps come into play. Barry?


So now we are treating murder like the continuation foul rule in the NBA. Sounds like proper moral baseline to continue running a 1st world country.
Posted by Auburn1968
NYC
Member since Mar 2019
19510 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:10 pm to
quote:

IF the original felony is defined as being complete, he would not have still been engaged in a felony when he fired the shots.


This is getting lost in the word weeds.
Posted by UncleFestersLegs
Member since Nov 2010
10829 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:12 pm to
quote:

I said that he killed two people,
quote:

he committed a murder
your words counselor
Posted by homesicktiger
High altitude hell
Member since Oct 2004
1367 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:25 pm to
quote:

Should be felony murder

But this is a great reminder to not shoot criminals running away from you




There are definitely some lessons to be learned, but that isn't one.
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:44 pm to
quote:

Sounds like proper moral baseline to continue running a 1st world country.
those sorts of distinctions have formed the basis for Anglo American law for about four centuries.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Carolinas
Member since Sep 2003
123929 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 5:52 pm to
quote:

I responded, somewhat sarcastically, “because he committed a murder?“
Wait. Sorry. Let's not limit this to Wisconsin.

In what state (or country) is self-defense referred to as "murder"?
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 6:16 pm to
quote:

In what state (or country) is self-defense referred to as "murder"?
You are really getting wrapped around the axle on semantics.

State laws vary in a lot of ways.

In some states, the crime is defined as “murder,“ and in other states it is defined as “homicide“ (both usually of varying degrees).

In most states, the elements of the crime (whether it is called “murder“ or “homicide“) are essentially the “intentional killing of another person.”

In every jurisdiction, self defense is an “affirmative defense“ which must be pleaded by the defendant.

If it is pleaded by the defendant, the burden of proof varies from state to state. Sometimes the state must disapprove the affirmative defense. Sometimes, the defendant must prove that it is applicable.

In both types of jurisdiction, however, the entire legal basis for an affirmative defense is an admission of the underlying offense, but establishing that the defendant’s actions were legally justified by the circumstances.

In the Rittenhouse case, the defendant did commit a “murder” or a “homicide,” but would not be convicted of the offense due to the justified nature of his actions.

Yes, that seems contrary to the way a lay person looks at the matter. I understand that. I have said that 1000 times. But, legally, that is the way it works.
This post was edited on 12/2/22 at 6:18 pm
Posted by NC_Tigah
Carolinas
Member since Sep 2003
123929 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 6:21 pm to
quote:

quote:

In what state (or country) is self-defense referred to as "murder"?
In some states, the crime is defined as “murder,“

In what states is self-defense referred to as "the crime"?
Posted by UncleFestersLegs
Member since Nov 2010
10829 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 7:14 pm to
quote:

In the Rittenhouse case, the defendant did commit a “murder” or a “homicide
murder and homicide aren't interchangeable.
This post was edited on 12/2/22 at 7:15 pm
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 12/2/22 at 7:16 pm to
Are you being intentionally obtuse? I know that my communication skills are far better than you seem to be pretending.

The offense is defined in some states, as “murder“ and in other states has “homicide.“ In Texas, for instance, Rittenhouse would have been charged with “murder,“ rather than whatever homicide offense it is that he was charged with in Wisconsin.
quote:

Sec. 19.02. MURDER.
(b) A person commits an offense if he:
(1) intentionally or knowingly causes the death of an individual;
That is what Rittenhouse DID, and the statute does NOT contain all the caveats that you see in Mirriam Webster (“the crime of unlawfully killing a person”).

In other words, the “unlawfully“ language that you (as a layperson) associate with the word “murder“ is NOT a part of the legal definition.

The “unlawful“ concept comes into play in the… wait for it… affirmative defenses.

An individual can violate section 19.02, but still not be convicted of a crime if he is able to establish a legal justification for his actions.
quote:

Sec. 9.02. JUSTIFICATION AS A DEFENSE.
It is a defense to prosecution that the conduct in question is justified under this chapter.

Sec. 9.31. SELF-DEFENSE.
(a) … a person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect the actor against the other's use or attempted use of unlawful force.
This post was edited on 12/2/22 at 7:34 pm
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