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re: Solve this OT

Posted on 7/23/18 at 9:43 pm to
Posted by CptRusty
Basket of Deplorables
Member since Aug 2011
11740 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 9:43 pm to
Just do it
Posted by slackster
Houston
Member since Mar 2009
91873 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 9:49 pm to
quote:


Envelope 1 has two aces.
Envelope 2 has an ace and a queen
Envelope 3 has two queens.

The dealer reached into a random envelope and pulls out an ace.

The odds that the remaining card is an ace or a queen is 50/50


Umm, no.

Forgot the envelope without an ace, it's irrelevant. Add all of the non-aces to envelope 2.

One envelope with 2 aces, another with 1 ace and 48 other cards. You reach in and pull out an ace.

What are the chances the next card is an ace? I'm legitimately asking you.
Posted by Scruffy
Kansas City
Member since Jul 2011
78024 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 9:53 pm to
quote:

What are the chances the next card is an ace?
50/50 because it is either an ace or not an ace.

There are only two options.






Posted by CptRusty
Basket of Deplorables
Member since Aug 2011
11740 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 9:54 pm to
Et tu, Scruffe
Posted by slackster
Houston
Member since Mar 2009
91873 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 9:55 pm to
Exactly. Thread/
Posted by KosmoCramer
Member since Dec 2007
80751 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:00 pm to
I'd love to wager with all the 50/50 folks on this game.

I'd be like taking money from an idiot.
Posted by GregMaddux
LSU Fan
Member since Jun 2011
18760 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:01 pm to
(no message)
This post was edited on 7/23/18 at 10:09 pm
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
23095 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:05 pm to
quote:

Lets say the balls are hollow. Inside each ball is paper with a unique indentifier for that ball, G1B1, G2B1, G1B2, S1B2.

When you pull the first gold ball, what are the odds of each respective identifier being in that ball? 1/3...

Once this pull is made, but before you look at the identifier inside...what are the odds for each of the following identifiers being found in the next ball:

G1B1 - 1/3
G2B1 - 1/3
S1B2 - 1/3


You can't account for the fact that if you selected box 2 then G1B2 is no longer an option while not ALSO accounting for the fact that G1B1 and G2B1 are each an option, but they cannot BOTH be options. It has to be one or the other.
Posted by KosmoCramer
Member since Dec 2007
80751 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:09 pm to
quote:

It's pointless to think about this problem like that in the practical world. What happens when you change the question to the following.

Same boxes as described by the OP. You select a box at random and pick a ball. Whats the probability that the second ball you choose from the same box is the same color (either color) as the first ball you chose?

Obviously it's 67%. Very easy to see how it's not 50%. Two out of three boxes have the same color balls. Given that question, before picking boxes starts the answer is 67%.

Anyone claiming the OP's problem's answer is equal to that (67%) is being foolish


Mind blown by stupidity
Posted by doubleb
Baton Rouge
Member since Aug 2006
43068 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:09 pm to
Thank you
Posted by CptRusty
Basket of Deplorables
Member since Aug 2011
11740 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:11 pm to
What will the second ball be if you pull the following:

G1B1?

G2B1?

G1B2?

Hopefully you can agree that each of those is equally likely to be your starting pull. If you can agree to that much, then the distribution of possible outcomes should be obvious.

Posted by slackster
Houston
Member since Mar 2009
91873 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:13 pm to
quote:

You can't account for the fact that if you selected box 2 then G1B2 is no longer an option while not ALSO accounting for the fact that G1B1 and G2B1 are each an option, but they cannot BOTH be options. It has to be one or the other.


As I told PearlJam, you guys should be worried that the 50/50 crew agrees with your logic.
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
23095 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:21 pm to
quote:

What will the second ball be if you pull the following:

G1B1?

G2B1?

G1B2?


1/3

1/3

1/3

We are getting to the same answer, but we are getting there using different logic.

I'm saying that the reason the answer is 67% is because once we know that the first selection is a gold ball, there is a 67% chance you picked the box with the two gold balls and a 33% chance you selected the box with the mixed gold and silver balls. At this point, there are only two possible outcomes, a selection of the "other gold ball" or a selection of the silver ball. Because there's a 67% chance you selected the box with 2 gold balls, theres a 67% chance your second selection will be the "other gold ball."

You're looking at the probability, from the initial selection, of selecting two gold balls if we know that the first ball pulled is gold. Under your reasoning, there are three possible combinations of pulls prior to the first ball being pulled that result in the first pull being a gold ball: G1/G2, G2/G1, and G3/S1. 2 of these 3 result in two gold balls being pulled, thus, the probability of the second ball being gold is 67%

Both reasonings get to the correct answer, they just differ in how they get there.
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
23095 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:23 pm to
quote:

As I told PearlJam, you guys should be worried that the 50/50 crew agrees with your logic.


There's a reason this is so. It's because their logic would be correct if they had taken into account the increased odds that the initial selection came from the box with 2 gold balls.
Posted by doubleb
Baton Rouge
Member since Aug 2006
43068 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:27 pm to
Nope
Posted by CptRusty
Basket of Deplorables
Member since Aug 2011
11740 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:27 pm to
quote:

1/3 1/3 1/3


That is not what I asked.

quote:

'm saying that the reason the answer is 67% is because once we know that the first selection is a gold ball, there is a 67% chance you picked the box with the two gold balls and a 33% chance you selected the box with the mixed gold and silver balls.


This is circular logic. You literally just said “the reason it’s 67% is because it’s 67%”
Posted by slackster
Houston
Member since Mar 2009
91873 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:27 pm to
quote:

There's a reason this is so. It's because their logic would be correct if they had taken into account the increased odds that the initial selection came from the box with 2 gold balls.


Yeah, I'm fine with the way you're explaining it, but pearl and I have gone back on forth over the semantics of it.

I'm focusing on what's left, as that's the question. The next ball can be one of three unique balls, two of which are gold, and one of which is silver.
Posted by doubleb
Baton Rouge
Member since Aug 2006
43068 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:30 pm to
There was no initial selection.

You picked a gold ball at random. You had a 50/50 chance of picking one, but that's not the question.

We were given a set of circumstances. A box produced s gold ball.

Now the odds that the other ball is gold I'd 50/50. That's been demonstrated.
Posted by CptRusty
Basket of Deplorables
Member since Aug 2011
11740 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:32 pm to
quote:

A box produced s gold ball.


You are failing to see how this changes the distribution of possible outcomes.
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
23095 posts
Posted on 7/23/18 at 10:33 pm to
quote:

This is circular logic. You literally just said “the reason it’s 67% is because it’s 67%”


Follow me here:

Let's label the boxes:

Box 1- 2 gold
Box 2- 1 gold 1 silver
Box 3- 2 silver.

If I tell you that you pull the first ball and its gold, what are the chances you selected the first ball from Box 1? 67%.

What are the chances you selected the 1 gold ball in Box 2? 33%.

If you selected the first ball from Box 1 then the probability of the second ball being gold is 100%.

If you selected the first ball from Box 2 then the probability of the second ball being gold is 0%.

Thus, (67% * 1) + (33% * 0)= 67%.
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