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re: New Orleans East teens make 'impossible' mathematical discovery unproven for 2,000 years
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:18 pm to crap4brain
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:18 pm to crap4brain
I’m going to take these young people’s word for it.
They could explain it to me for days and there is no way I’m understanding it.
Way to go kids.
They could explain it to me for days and there is no way I’m understanding it.
Way to go kids.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:19 pm to Alyosha
quote:
Article would be better to say, “Teenagers from NOLA East present on Pythagorean’s Theorem to mathematicians”. Unfortunately the clickbait seduces some.
I agree it's clickbait, but trust me, they're doing more than many of their peers.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:21 pm to GumboPot
quote:
FWIW, there are several geometrical proofs of Pythagoras' Theorem. That is the basis of the theorem that trigonometry is drawn from. So it is not circular.
Trigonometry IS geometry
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:32 pm to crap4brain
Part of problem is when you try to click on link to see if any details the article as of right now still states:
It later states:
quote:
Calcea Johnson and Ne'Kiya Jackson just gave a presentation to the American Mathematical Society's Annual Southeastern Conference. They say they've proved Pythagoras' Theorem can be proven without trigonometry -- something that many thought was impossible.
It later states:
quote:
Calcea and Ne'Kiya explained it to me like this: Basically, trigonometry is based on Pythagoras' Theorem (A^2 + B^2 = C^2, sound familiar?), so using trigonometry to prove Pythagoras's Theorem is what's known as circular logic.
An idea can't prove itself.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:34 pm to GreenRockTiger
Trig is the study of the properties of triangles. Geometry is the study of all geometric figures.
You can use squares (not triangles and not trig.) to prove Pythagorean theorem.
You can use squares (not triangles and not trig.) to prove Pythagorean theorem.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:37 pm to crap4brain
What kind is BS is this? It this like Bigfoot?
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:41 pm to 427Nova
Am I the only one who pictured two Vietnamese girls from N O East?
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:46 pm to crap4brain
CHAP GPT did it in 2 seconds btw:
quote:
Can Pythagoras' Theorem can be proven with trigonometry
quote:
Yes, Pythagoras' Theorem can be proven with trigonometry. One way to prove it is to use the definition of the trigonometric functions sine, cosine, and tangent, and the relationships between them.
Consider a right triangle with legs of length a and b and hypotenuse of length c. Let ? be the angle between the hypotenuse and the leg of length a. Then:
sin ? = b/c
cos ? = a/c
tan ? = b/a
Squaring each of these equations and adding them together gives:
sin^2 ? + cos^2 ? = (b/c)^2 + (a/c)^2
Substituting (b/c)^2 with (sin ?)^2 and (a/c)^2 with (cos ?)^2, we get:
sin^2 ? + cos^2 ? = sin^2 ? + cos^2 ?
Using the identity that sin^2 ? + cos^2 ? = 1, we get:
1 = (b/c)^2 + (a/c)^2
Multiplying both sides by c^2 gives:
c^2 = a^2 + b^2
which is Pythagoras' Theorem.
Therefore, Pythagoras' Theorem can be proven with trigonometry.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:48 pm to NPComb
Chat GPT wouldn't last 5 minutes on the streets of NOE
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:49 pm to dallastigers
Pythagorean theorem is just the addition of two smaller squares to make a bigger square. And if you take one leg from each square, connect the legs end to end to form vertices you will form a right triangle. From there trig is developed.
This post was edited on 3/24/23 at 4:56 pm
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:49 pm to GumboPot
Right but this is known and not a new discovery
The article contradicts itself anyway and nothing of their new proof is really explained
The article contradicts itself anyway and nothing of their new proof is really explained
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:55 pm to GreenRockTiger
Look, don't get me wrong...definitely a huge props to these kids.
I just think the assertion by the media of an "impossible mathematical discovery unproven for 2000 years" is a slight embellishment.
I just think the assertion by the media of an "impossible mathematical discovery unproven for 2000 years" is a slight embellishment.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 4:58 pm to NPComb
quote:
CHAP GPT did it in 2 seconds btw:
Now ask GPT Chat to prove Pythagoras theory using geometry.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 5:06 pm to GumboPot
quote:
Now ask GPT Chat to prove Pythagoras theory using geometry.
quote:
prove Pythagoras theory using geometry
quote:
Yes, Pythagoras' Theorem can also be proven using geometry. One way to prove it is to construct squares on each side of a right triangle, and then show that the area of the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the areas of the squares on the other two sides.
Here is a step-by-step proof:
Start with a right triangle with legs of length a and b and hypotenuse of length c.
Construct squares on each side of the triangle, with sides of length a, b, and c respectively.
Divide the square on the hypotenuse into two smaller squares, each with sides of length a and b, by drawing a line from the right angle to the midpoint of the hypotenuse.
The area of the square on the hypotenuse is c^2, and the areas of the two smaller squares are a^2 and b^2.
The two smaller squares on the legs of the triangle can be rearranged to form a larger square with sides of length a+b. The area of this square is (a+b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2.
The area of the larger square is equal to the sum of the areas of the smaller squares, so we have:
a^2 + b^2 = c^2
This is Pythagoras' Theorem.
Therefore, Pythagoras' Theorem can be proven using geometry.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 5:11 pm to NPComb
The proof you posted uses circular logic. The identity that the square of sin(x) plus the square of cos(x) equals 1 is itself derived from the Pythagorean theorem as applied to the unit circle.
This identity is useful to verify that the general form of the Pythagorean theorem can be verified algebraically, but it doesn’t prove the Pythagorean theorem from trigonometry without resorting to circular logic.
This identity is useful to verify that the general form of the Pythagorean theorem can be verified algebraically, but it doesn’t prove the Pythagorean theorem from trigonometry without resorting to circular logic.
This post was edited on 3/24/23 at 5:13 pm
Posted on 3/24/23 at 5:36 pm to crap4brain
quote:
They say
Is this like that kid that went to obama's white house because he smashed a few clocks and made a clock of the remains?
Posted on 3/24/23 at 5:38 pm to Ross
quote:
The proof you posted uses circular logic.
quote:
prove the Pythagorean theorem from trigonometry without resorting to circular logic
quote:
Certainly! Here is a proof of the Pythagorean Theorem from trigonometry that does not use circular logic:
Consider a right triangle with sides a, b, and c, where c is the hypotenuse, and let angle A be the angle opposite side a.
Draw a perpendicular line from angle A to side c, dividing the triangle into two smaller right triangles with sides h, a, and b, and H, b, and a, respectively.
Since sin(A) = h/c, h = c * sin(A).
Since cos(A) = b/c, b = c * cos(A).
The area of the triangle can be expressed in two ways:
One half the product of the base and height: (1/2) * b * a
One half the product of the sides: (1/2) * c * h
Substituting b and h in terms of c and A from steps 3 and 4 into the area formula and simplifying gives:
(1/2) * c * a * cos(A) = (1/2) * c * b * sin(A)
Simplifying further gives:
a * cos(A) = b * sin(A)
Squaring both sides of this equation and using the identity sin^2(A) + cos^2(A) = 1, we get:
a^2 * cos^2(A) + b^2 * sin^2(A) = b^2 - b^2 * cos^2(A)
Simplifying further gives:
a^2 * cos^2(A) + b^2 * sin^2(A) = b^2 * sin^2(A)
Dividing both sides by sin^2(A) and using the identity sin^2(A) + cos^2(A) = 1, we get:
a^2 / sin^2(A) + b^2 / cos^2(A) = b^2 / sin^2(A)
Multiplying both sides by sin^2(A) and simplifying gives:
a^2 + b^2 * cos^2(A) = b^2
Using the identity cos^2(A) = 1 - sin^2(A), we get:
a^2 + b^2 * (1 - sin^2(A)) = b^2
Simplifying further gives:
a^2 = b^2 * sin^2(A)
Dividing both sides by sin^2(A) gives:
a^2 / sin^2(A) = b^2
Using the identity sin^2(A) + cos^2(A) = 1, we get:
a^2 / (1 - cos^2(A)) = b^2
Simplifying further gives:
a^2 / sin^2(A) = b^2 / cos^2(A)
Substituting b / cos(A) for a * sin(A) from step 7 into this equation and simplifying gives:
b^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2 * a * b * sin(A)
Rearranging terms gives:
a^2 + b^2 = c^2
This is the Pythagorean Theorem, which we have proved from trigonometry without circular logic.
Therefore, we have shown that the Pythagorean Theorem can be derived from trigonometry without resorting to circular logic.
Posted on 3/24/23 at 5:53 pm to NPComb
quote:
Squaring both sides of this equation and using the identity sin^2(A) + cos^2(A) = 1, we get:
same problem as before
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