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re: The reality of Slavery in the US vs everywhere else

Posted on 12/12/25 at 9:48 am to
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 9:48 am to
quote:

He's trying to turn down the racial animosity towards white people, by saying blacks, given the opportunity, did the same thing.
And that is fine.

But every educated American already KNOWS that a handful of free Blacks owned slaves. There are certainly illiterates who are unaware of this fact, and it is even educational to share this info with them.

But these dipshits who keep misrepresenting that some Black was the “largest slaveholder in State X” are not doing that. They are spreading disinformation (knowingly in many cases) with the intent of establishing that Blacks slaveholders were the WORST slaveholders … certainly worse than most Whites.
Posted by BuckeyeGoon
Member since Jan 2025
1168 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 9:57 am to
quote:

But these dipshits who keep misrepresenting that some Black was the “largest slaveholder in State X” are not doing that. They are spreading disinformation (knowingly in many cases)

Its still a good way to make liberals face an uncomfortable fact they would otherwise ignore. While trying to prove this person wasn't literally the biggest slave owner in the state, they do have to acknowledge there was indeed a black slave owner though. Once you get them arguing over the amount of slaves the black slave owner owned, they already lost the overall discussion.
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 10:13 am to
quote:

Its still a good way to make liberals face an uncomfortable fact they would otherwise ignore.
Sure, if you like lying.

The alternative would be to simply provide a list (with links?) of a few prominent Black slaveholders, without the false embellishment.

Personally, I have never found intentional misrepresentation to be a particularly effective means of making a point.
This post was edited on 12/12/25 at 10:15 am
Posted by KiwiHead
Auckland, NZ
Member since Jul 2014
37533 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 10:44 am to
That's never been in dispute. So it your contention that because a few black guys owned slaves it mitigates the moral issue, if not excusing it altogether.

I suspect slavery was not in any way pleasant for the slave regardless of the skin color of the owner.

Do you doubt or argue that the Southern Planter class that was overwhelmingly white had a vested interest in not only maintaining slavery but also keeping the slaves in line by extreme means if needed?
Posted by crazy4lsu
Member since May 2005
39820 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 11:03 am to
quote:

This simple fact destroys every Progressive argument about the Institution of slavery in America.


It does not.
Posted by alphaandomega
Tuscaloosa-Here to Serve
Member since Aug 2012
17134 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 11:43 am to
quote:


Let's never forget it was black tribes that originally sold the slaves and there were also thousands of free blacks on America that owned thousands of slaves.


Lets also not forget that slaves were only in America for 86 years. Prior to 1776 the slaves were under the British.

600,000 men died to free them, that should cover the 86 years. If reparations are needed they should contact King Charles.
Posted by Zach
Gizmonic Institute
Member since May 2005
117569 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:21 pm to
quote:

Everyone owned slaves. Slavery was normal. The US did not invent it or decide on it, it was the norm.

American slavery varied a lot by religion and region. In the 17th century most people lived in large lots (by our standards) around small towns. Visualize a house and small barn surrounded by 10-50 acres of land. The owner could work the land with his sons and no slaves. He might find one poorer white worker to help out for pay. But Virginia broke the mold with richer people getting grants of 500 or more acres and they bought slaves. So, the slave dependency difference between North and South started before the American Revolution, much less than before the Civil War.
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:25 pm to
quote:

600,000 men died to free them
FFS.

Those men died to "preserve the Union." Lincoln was VERY clear that he was willing to either (a) free the slaves or (b) leave them in bondage ... whichever would "preserve the Union."

Were there Abolitionists amongst the Union soldiers? Sure. But they were a tiny minority.
Posted by Madking
Member since Apr 2016
70622 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:26 pm to
You’re so disgusting
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:28 pm to
quote:

American slavery varied a lot by religion and region. In the 17th century most people lived in large lots (by our standards) around small towns. Visualize a house and small barn surrounded by 10-50 acres of land. The owner could work the land with his sons and no slaves. He might find one poorer white worker to help out for pay. But Virginia broke the mold with richer people getting grants of 500 or more acres and they bought slaves. So, the slave dependency difference between North and South started before the American Revolution, much less than before the Civil War.
Remember too that those larger landowners started off working their land with indentured servants from England.

But Englishmen willing to work a seven-year indenture in exchange for transport became rarer and rarer, plus it was tiresome to replace your entire labor force every seven years. So reliance upon involuntary servitude increased.
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:30 pm to
quote:

You’re so disgusting
Those are the objective facts, my friend.

Don't rely upon the mythological apotheosis of Lincoln and his motives. Open a book.
Posted by Harry Boutte
Louisiana
Member since Oct 2024
3996 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:36 pm to
quote:

Prior to 1776 the slaves were under the British.

Not in Louisiana. Slaves in colonial Louisiana even had certain, if limited, rights under the Code Noir. Not to mention the fact that creoles weren't considered black in colonial Louisiana. Once Louisiana was admitted to the Union, they got rid of the Code, and creoles lost most of their rights as well.

And many times what the black slave owners were doing was buying slaves to reunite them with their families. I believe that was the case with the creole owners of Laura Plantation.
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:39 pm to
quote:

And many times what the black slave owners were doing was buying slaves to reunite them with their families. I believe that was the case with the creole owners of Laura Plantation.
The simple truth is that most SMALL Black slaveholders were purchasing family members and that applicable state laws prevented them from then freeing their wives and children.

But it is ALSO true that there were small numbers of rich Black planters who owned and treated many slaves no differently than their White counterparts.

Shocking, but both can be true simultaneously. The world is not monochromatic.
This post was edited on 12/12/25 at 12:41 pm
Posted by Azkiger
Member since Nov 2016
28105 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:44 pm to
quote:

This is not really true.


It's not true that slavery was the norm when America was founded?

How many countries outlawed slavery prior to 1776?
Posted by jrobic4
Baton Rouge
Member since Aug 2011
13255 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:48 pm to
quote:

William Ellison


I know Bill Ellison. He is very wealthy, but he owns no slaves
This post was edited on 12/12/25 at 4:53 pm
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 12:51 pm to
quote:

How many countries outlawed slavery prior to 1776?
Very few.

But it was also vanishinly-rare even in most countries that had not legally banned it.

England is a good example. In 1700, the population of England was 5 million, and there were about ten thousand slaves. Two-tenths of one percent of the population. That is not "common," as asserted in the OP.
Posted by Azkiger
Member since Nov 2016
28105 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 1:04 pm to
quote:

Very few.



Zero, actually.

quote:

England is a good example. In 1700, the population of England was 5 million, and there were about ten thousand slaves. Two-tenths of one percent of the population. That is not "common," as asserted in the OP.


Why are you comparing a nation that's 800ish years old (at that point in time) to a new nation?

In 1086 over 10% of England's population were slaves, very similar to America in its youth.
This post was edited on 12/12/25 at 2:31 pm
Posted by SemperFiDawg
Member since Sep 2014
4337 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 1:09 pm to
quote:

Worst mistake we've made.


I don't know about that. 60 plus million abortions and counting. Those consequences are gonna come due some day.
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 1:14 pm to
quote:

Why are you comparing a nation that's 800ish years old (at that point in time) to a new nation?

In 1086 over 10% of England's population were slaves, very similar to America in it's youth.
So, you are saying that slavery is a necessary step in the social development of a nation?

That sounds remarkably-similar to the Communist dialectic theory.
Posted by Madking
Member since Apr 2016
70622 posts
Posted on 12/12/25 at 1:52 pm to
Lmao
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