re: Study: All Humanity Comes From One Couple.................... You don't say

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Prior to the sun, what light would the earth have had?

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That's the current topic. The stages and just one theory. We are talking about the creation of the sun and the stages vs the stages of the earth and how they line up.


Rose needs it to disprove the Bible, I don't. I work from stand point that science changes and new discoveries gives new insight and explains Genesis.


Rose want to snap the ball and move straight to the end of the play. I'm going through the whole development of that play.

The truth is, and he may admit to that, when you state billions of years in a GAP... you really don't know where it lines up... yet.

He knows that.

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So you can't measure a day without the sun, but you can measure years without the sun? This thread delivers!

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It's almost as if you don't want a serious conversation....

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We have already traced the lineage of man and it doesn't have a bottle neck 4500 years ago or in the time period of the neolithic revolution.

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Really?

So since there is no written documentation of said lineage, and the flood lasting all of 40 days, I'm almost positive any archeological evidence couldn't distinguish death pre/post 40 day time span. Because believe it or not, there were lots of people living in many places prior to said flood

But studies are pointing to the population explosion beginning with the development of farming arising out of the fertile crescent

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The Fertile Crescent, often called the "Cradle of Civilization", is the region in the Middle East regarded as the birthplace of agriculture, urbanization, writing, trade, science, history and organized religion and was first populated c. 10,000 BCE when agriculture and the domestication of animals began in the region. By 9,000 BCE the cultivation of wild grains and cereals was wide-spread and, by 5000 BCE, irrigation of agricultural crops was fully developed.

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It doesn't get any clearer than CRADLE of civilization. Cradle as in infancy.

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Virtually every area of human knowledge was advanced by these people, including:
•Science and Technology
•Writing and Literature
•Religion
•Agricultural Techniques
•Mathematics and Astronomy
•Domestication of Animals
•Long-Distance Trade
•Medical Practices (including dentistry)
•The Wheel
•The Concept of Time

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The region where said ark came to rest is where our current population began its explosion. That cannot be denied, at this point

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Well please report back to me when the Christian scientists figure out what light the plants were using to photosynthesize prior to the sun.

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Both T Tauri and main sequence stars have similar temperatures, but T Tauri stars appear significantly brighter due to their bigger size.

Care to have a logical thought from a stand point of just knowledge? Or are you in the crowd that science MUST defeat the Bible?

If so... then what's the point of you being in the thread?

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uh, the single source language would have been Semitic. The others would have diverged from there as humans migrated

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There's very little evidence for that. The proto-Indo-European homeland question is up for quite a bit of debate still. The Anatolian hypothesis is one of the proposals, along with an Armenian hypothesis, a Pontic-Caspian hypothesis, and a now out-of-date but still occasionally cited Out-of-India hypothesis. The most popular of these is a Kurgan hypothesis.

Regardless, there is pretty much no evidence that Semitic languages diverged from a Proto-Indo-European. The Proto-Semitic language developed independently in Southwest Asia. Semitic languages treat the tirlateral root in a specific way that is unique to those languages. Not only that, Semitic word origins are much more well-attested than Indo-European.

There are some overlaps, especially in grammar, but there are so many key differences that it's pretty much a fact that Semitic languages did not derive from an Indo-European origin. Semitic languages has a much more robust gender designations, while Indo-European languages have the animate/inanimate distinction, with the animate splitting into a masculine and feminine, and the inanimate becoming the neuter. Semitic has true ejective consonants, while Indo-European languages mediae are more than likely implosives. Semitic languages have an ablaut that is trilateral, as I've mentioned, while Indo-European languages are more simple.

I could go more into the differences, but suffice it to say that there is literally no evidence that Semitic languages and Indo-European languages share a similar origin. There certainly is an overlap, especially in terms of loanwords, but that almost certainly took place well after Semitic languages were codified.

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Most estimates

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I see your problem

Moses recorded that history. Not living those events

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Japan has no flood myth at all.

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Seriously? An island people? They would have only migrated there after the flood, from China or Korea. Both who do have a flood story

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They would have only migrated there after the flood

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There is plenty of evidence that shows Japan was inhabited before the 2400 BCE date.

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THE SUN WAS NOT A T TAURI STAR FOR BILLIONS OF YEARS

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Draw that out play by play. Give me a description of everything that is happening at once.

Play by play:

1.) Sun goes from proto-star to T Tauri
2.) T Tauri becomes current phase
3.) Earth completes formation as a hot rock devoid of water
4.) Earth undergoes many changes
5.) 1 billion years after completion the cyanobacteria form
6.) 2.5 billion years after earth forms, the first eukaryotes evolve
7.) 3.7 billion years after earth forms, land plants evolve.
8.) ~300 million years after the first land plants evolve, trees evolve.

That's the order. Which is completely different that Genesis account.