re: Knowing what you know now, how did Floyd die?

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It means that there are recreational, medical, and overdose measures of drugs. Floyd took a recreational dose meaning a dose that wasn't prescribed and wasn't an overdose do you understand?

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Yes, Einstein, I fully understand the concept that people use illicit drugs recreationally. The failure here seems to be your inability to grasp the concept that there is NO recommended “safe” dosage of meth/fentanyl for a man suffering from heart disease.

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Are these signs of recreational doses?

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They’re signs of “excited delirium” if you’re a cop. And “restraint asphyxia” if you’re a plaintiff’s attorney.

if the drugs caused an overdose than one of the two pathologists would have put that. Where are you people getting this misinformation? seriously try and throw out the politics, would you still doubt it was a homicide then?

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2 coroners characterized the last minutes of his life as homicide. Maybe he had a panic attack, but that still would not be a homicidal death. im sorry you have such a difficult time accepting the facts because you don't like that riots happened as a result of homicide.

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one of the 'coroners' is a notorious charlatan who's famous for testifying for whatever he's paid to say. The other actual medical examiner put his cause of death as cardiac arrest, complicated by police restraint. Again, as already stated to you previously, a medical examiner listing a death as homicide means pretty much nothing, just that another human was involved or contributed. It does not mean murder or even a crime was committed. Those cops are getting off, there is way too much reasonable doubt for a murder charge here. They might have gotten a negligent homicide charge to stick.

Also, stop spreading misinformation that 11ng/ml of fentanyl and 5.6ng/ml of norfentanyl is some kind of low amount. That's 5x any therapeutic concentration and well above the threshold that can cause death, especially in someone with other narcotic substances in their systems, let alone someone with all that plus severe heart disease. Nobody should have a blood concentration of 11ng/ml unless they are under the care of an anaesthesiologist, or you run a significant risk of dying. Also, fentanyl can and does cause sudden cardiac death, not just respiratory failure. If there were any actual physical signs of mechanical asphyxia they would have shown up in the actual medical examiner report, but they don't. Just a lame bone thrown to the mob about complications from police restraint.

All these cry babies
waaaaaa knee to neck
waaaaa knee to neck

any of you read the autopsy? the part about the neck?

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Also, stop spreading misinformation that 11ng/ml of fentanyl and 5.6ng/ml of norfentanyl is some kind of low amount. That's 5x any therapeutic concentration and well above the threshold that can cause death,

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norfentanyl is inactive you dummy, its entirely meaningless with respect to intoxication, You don't have a clue about the meaning of your quotes, but that doesn't stop you from regurgitating misinformation and thinking that it matters. Also it turns out floyd's 11ng of fentanyl is less than 1/2 the mean OD fatality values for fentanyl. 11ng is even slightly lower than incidental fatalities(people who died from trauma/natural causes who just so happened to have fentanyl in their blood. which is what 2 coroners agree happened in the homicidal death of Floyd.)

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Our results detected a mean fentanyl blood concentration of 26.4 ng/ml in the intoxication deaths and 11.8 ng/ml in the incidental (non-fentanyl-related) group.

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LINK

it is you who needs to quit spreading misinformation, a heart attack just would not have been ruled homicide, it would be natural causes. OD would be accidental death, not homicide. Asphyxia can cause CP arrest, and 2 coroners determined the death was homicidal. There are no physical signs of mechanical asphyxia in over 1/5 asphyxiations. Your misguided notions of fatal intoxication are dispelled by the lab work in the case.

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here is no medical evidence supporting the assertion that Floyd was asphyxiated.

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That is 100% FALSE.

Floyd either died of OD, which in the case of fentanyl would be 2° to asphyxia.

or

He died d/t continued carotid compression, i.e., which would be 2° to asphyxia.

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11ng/ml of fentanyl and 5.6ng/ml of norfentanyl is some kind of low amount.

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FYI, not that much can be made of circulating fentanyl levels without knowing what Floyd's tolerances were. The longer and heavier Floyd's narcotic abuse history, the most fentanyl he'd need to get high.

Fentanyl can cause chest wall rigidity which could account for some of Floyd's complaints. However, that's an exceedingly rare occurrence, and when it happens it normally is associated with an initial IV bolus.

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FYI, not that much can be made of circulating fentanyl levels without knowing what Floyd's tolerances were. The longer and heavier Floyd's narcotic abuse history, the most fentanyl he'd need to get high.

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the tolerance only applies to the euphoria effect. Physical tolerance to the dangerous physical effects happens much more slowly or not at all. That's why fentanyl kills so many people, tolerance to the high happens rapidly but the drug remains just as dangerous to use