re: Dayton, OH bar mass shooting - 10 dead, 27 wounded

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Nah, it was not.

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You know it's coming because it's a very simple and easy rebuttal to one of the most common arguments the gun nuts make.

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You're saying the 2A exists solely for people to protect themselves from government?

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Many in the Founding generation believed that governments are prone to use soldiers to oppress the people. English history suggested that this risk could be controlled by permitting the government to raise armies (consisting of full-time paid troops) only when needed to fight foreign adversaries. For other purposes, such as responding to sudden invasions or other emergencies, the government could rely on a militia that consisted of ordinary civilians who supplied their own weapons and received some part-time, unpaid military training.

The onset of war does not always allow time to raise and train an army, and the Revolutionary War showed that militia forces could not be relied on for national defense. The Constitutional Convention therefore decided that the federal government should have almost unfettered authority to establish peacetime standing armies and to regulate the militia.

This massive shift of power from the states to the federal government generated one of the chief objections to the proposed Constitution. Anti-Federalists argued that the proposed Constitution would take from the states their principal means of defense against federal usurpation. The Federalists responded that fears of federal oppression were overblown, in part because the American people were armed and would be almost impossible to subdue through military force.

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Hypothetical: Rape counts are on the rise....who’s to blame? Porn? Over sexualized society? Scantily dressed women? Pick one, we’ll ban it

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For more than 80 years, the agency defined rape as “carnal knowledge of a female forcibly and against her will.”

In 2013, however, the FBI’s Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) program redefined rape by incorporating the concept of consent, removing “forcible” and specifying the type of acts involved.

The agency now defines rape as the “penetration, no matter how slight, of the vagina or anus with any body part or object, or oral penetration by a sex organ of another person, without the consent of the victim.”

The new definition now includes “male and female victims and offenders, and reflects the various forms of sexual penetration understood to be rape, especially non-consenting acts of sodomy, and sexual assaults with objects,” the UCR staff said in a statement.

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When it was written at the time, yes, it was to allow citizens to protect themselves from government whether it be their own or via invasion.

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Via interpretation, maybe. The initial reasoning behind the amendment was militia/military based though.

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It was for self-protection. That's clear. I'm saying that AT THE TIME that protection was from an invasion or if the government had to be overthrown. It wasn't really intended as protection from the common criminal.

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