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Why are caught foul tips with <2 strikes not outs?

Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:04 pm
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:04 pm
With 2 strikes its considered a strike out. Sure. Fine.

But I’ve always thought it’s bizarre that if happens in a count with less than 2 strikes the hitter gets to hit a ball that the defense catches and he’s not out. What’s the rationale behind that unnecessary exception to the basic premise of baseball?
Posted by thermal9221
Youngsville
Member since Feb 2005
13236 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:06 pm to
Because it’s a tip
Posted by SelaTiger
Member since Aug 2016
17960 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:06 pm to
Because that’s just baseball.
Posted by RummelTiger
Texas
Member since Aug 2004
89846 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:07 pm to
Because that’s the rule...
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:09 pm to
The first 3 responses literally mean “I have no fricking clue but I feel the need to answer in some way”
This post was edited on 3/16/21 at 9:09 pm
Posted by jlovel7
Louisiana
Member since Aug 2014
21308 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:09 pm to
A tip is far easier for a catcher to catch than any other way the ball comes off the bat. Almost to the point where the catch is almost automatic because the ball is displaced so little. The catcher rarely has to react to it.

So it’s just a way to give an advantage to the hitter and make the game more interesting. Foul tip outs (not on a 3rd strike) would be boring.
This post was edited on 3/16/21 at 9:10 pm
Posted by WestCoastAg
Member since Oct 2012
145139 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:10 pm to
The same reason why fumbles out of the endzone are touchbacks for the other team
Posted by SteelerBravesDawg
Member since Sep 2020
34552 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:11 pm to
B/c it's a live ball.
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:11 pm to
quote:

The same reason why fumbles out of the endzone are touchbacks for the other team




I highly doubt it’s the same reason lol
Posted by burdman
Louisiana
Member since Aug 2007
20685 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:11 pm to
Because a foul tip that is caught is counted as a strike and not a foul ball.
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:12 pm to
quote:

Because a foul tip that is caught is counted as a strike and not a foul ball.


Yeah dude. That’s the whole point of this thread haha
Posted by burdman
Louisiana
Member since Aug 2007
20685 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:13 pm to


I didn’t read the whole OP. My bad

ETA: I guess I should’ve said think of it as a swing and miss but that wouldn’t answer the framing of the question
This post was edited on 3/16/21 at 9:16 pm
Posted by JJ27
Member since Sep 2004
60287 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:14 pm to
quote:

Because a foul tip that is caught is counted as a strike and not a foul ball.


Yeah dude. That’s the whole point of this thread haha



Yet he answered correctly. You're seeing the tips prior to 2 strikes as fouls. They're not. They're strikes/tips. So the rule doesn't change. Your interpretation of the rule changes.
Posted by Winston Cup
Dallas Cowboys Fan
Member since May 2016
65496 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:19 pm to
Because baseball is boring as shite as it is. The people in the 1800s called it a do over cause the batter had a club and the umpire did not. So do over is the rule

And baseball can’t change any rules ever
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:22 pm to
quote:

You're seeing the tips prior to 2 strikes as fouls. They're not. They're strikes/tips.


They are baseballs that were hit by a bat that were caught before hitting the ground.

The designation “tip” comes from the rule that I’m questioning.

I understand the rule defines them differently and treats them differently.

I understand everything about the rule and it’s implementation.

I simply don’t understand why it exists. And neither do any of you apparently
This post was edited on 3/16/21 at 9:23 pm
Posted by Choupique19
The cheap seats
Member since Sep 2005
61813 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:22 pm to
It’s treated as a swing and miss
Posted by fightin tigers
Downtown Prairieville
Member since Mar 2008
73681 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:23 pm to
Why can I run through 1st base, but not 3rd?
Posted by Master of Sinanju
Member since Feb 2012
11318 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:23 pm to
I think one of the reasons is to prevent cheap doubling up of baserunners.
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:23 pm to
quote:

Why can I run through 1st base, but not 3rd?


Good one. Start a thread
Posted by Hester Carries
Member since Sep 2012
22418 posts
Posted on 3/16/21 at 9:25 pm to
quote:

I think one of the reasons is to prevent cheap doubling up of baserunners



Now we’re fricking cooking.

First actual answer. Never considered this.
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