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re: Trying more to understand this fumble non recovery

Posted on 11/6/22 at 10:56 am to
Posted by geauxpurple
New Orleans
Member since Jul 2014
16221 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 10:56 am to
Stupid rule. I favors the team that made the mistake.
Posted by lostinbr
Baton Rouge, LA
Member since Oct 2017
12571 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 11:02 am to
quote:

You can’t say that he clearly did not have possession. You can argue it, but it isn’t “clear”. The call on the field should’ve stood.

This part I agree with. While I think he probably did not have possession by rule, it’s borderline for sure and you would definitely like to see them defer to the call on the field in that scenario.
Posted by Gorilla Ball
Az
Member since Feb 2006
12778 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 1:50 pm to
I don’t make the rules
Posted by s2
Southdowns
Member since Sep 2016
6263 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 3:05 pm to
you never disappoint with your subjective arguments.
you will always be a penhead.







Posted by justsaygeaux2
Member since Feb 2017
2210 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 3:07 pm to
Beyond that, why was it not illegal touching? And that rule was amended this year to add loss of down to the 5 yard penalty.
Posted by jrh038
Member since Nov 2021
5 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 3:53 pm to
quote:

This part I agree with. While I think he probably did not have possession by rule, it’s borderline for sure and you would definitely like to see them defer to the call on the field in that scenario.


I thought the refs might weasel their way into the right call by saying the LSU player had possession, fumbled, and regained possession.

I understand why the rule exist in it's current form, but it needs a carve out for turnovers.
Posted by I20goon
about 7mi down a dirt road
Member since Aug 2013
18864 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 4:29 pm to
There's only one thing I don't undstand about this whole play and/or ref's call...

He picked the ball up with two hands.

I sorta get "not possessing" just for laying hands on it. If you use "two hands touching" you'll never sort out most fumbles.

But when you pick it up off the turf, with two hands, before anyone else touches it, then that's a whole other matter. If picking a ball up isn't possessing it the whole game is fricked. Do you have make a pillow fort before the refs decide, yeah you got this.
Posted by Tigger98
Member since Oct 2020
943 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 4:29 pm to
I don't think that's the precedent on a loose ball. .
On a player with established possession running the ball, and knee touches the ground, yes.

Let me ask you this, when a ball is fumbled, all players involved are on the ground and there's a scramble for it, and you get both hands on the ball for a split second, but another guy immediately takes it out of your hands and is holding it, don't the refs award it to the player that has the ball for the extended period of time and say, gets up holding the ball? The refs jump in the pile looking for the man that has possession continuously in the pile, don't they. they may have seen 1 player grab it initially, but loses it to someone else that hit it, and possesses it.
This post was edited on 11/6/22 at 4:33 pm
Posted by I20goon
about 7mi down a dirt road
Member since Aug 2013
18864 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 4:36 pm to
quote:

Let me ask you this, when a ball is fumbled, all players involved are on the ground and there's a scramble for it, and you get both hands on the ball for a split second, but another guy immediately takes it out of your hands and is holding it, don't the refs award it to the player that has the ball for the extended period of time and say, gets up holding the ball?
I get that, in fact I specifically addressed that. You can't just have touching the ball be possession for the exact reason you stated. In a pile there's lots of hands on it.

BUT, when you put two hands AND pick said ball up, with no one else touching it, that is NOT "just" touching it. It was picked up off the turf prior to Bama TE touching it.

Let me add to your scanario, a fumble ensues. Multiple people scrambling for it... many hands on it. Guy picks it up and kneels. Assuming no whistle has blown, is that guy not going to be awarded possession?

It is the picking it up off the turf that I'm singling out. I don't care if he did it one handed or with t-rex arms. Guy picks a ball up off the turf, not bouncing, he possess it regardless of where his knee is.
Posted by LCLa
Member since Apr 2017
4371 posts
Posted on 11/6/22 at 8:12 pm to
So what all of yall “two hands on the ball” people are saying is that the instant a player has two hands on the ball it’s his.

Is this the case with a receiver? No. There must be some sort of football move made.

Possession is not instantaneous.

We may not like the call, but it was correct.

Possession is not established by “two hands on the ball”.
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