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Officer lets DWI go, driver hits someone after, what's the charge for the officer?

Posted on 11/11/19 at 12:54 pm
Posted by Kujo
225-911-5736
Member since Dec 2015
6015 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 12:54 pm
If a cop lets someone go after stopping them for DWI, and that person hits someone shortly after, is the cop an accessory?

Say he tested the driver and the driver failed. Are there any criminal charges that can be filed or is the a civil action?

If it's criminal, can anyone link a case/news story for something like this.

I've heard bartenders are responsible for DWI of overserved customers, are police different?
Posted by NorthshoreTiger76
Pelicans, Saints, & LSU Fan
Member since May 2009
80160 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 12:55 pm to
You still fricked baw
Posted by BobLeeDagger
In Your Head
Member since May 2016
6907 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 12:56 pm to
Is this 1/10000000 hypothetical situation really deserving of it's own thread?
Posted by LuckyTiger
Someone's Alter
Member since Dec 2008
45163 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 12:57 pm to
Paid leave for two weeks.
Posted by PrivatePublic
Member since Nov 2012
17848 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 12:57 pm to
quote:

If it's criminal, can anyone link a case/news story for something like this.


Do you own fricking work.
Posted by East Coast Band
Member since Nov 2010
62729 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:01 pm to
Judges,who have let a felon go that goes out and kills someone, are never held responsible.
Conservative media will bash the judge, but CNN, etc. will say nothing about the decision of the judges
Posted by Breauxsif
Member since May 2012
22290 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:02 pm to
2 weeks of paid leave, if said incident happened in BR.
Posted by PCRammer
1725 Slough Avenue in Scranton, PA
Member since Jan 2014
1449 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:22 pm to
Not sure what cops you interact with but that shite ain't happening. If the officer is feeling super generous the best possible case for the perp is being allowed to call a friend or a cab. That cop isn't giving you your keys back until you sleep it off.
Posted by Kujo
225-911-5736
Member since Dec 2015
6015 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:23 pm to
Say it happened, what's the charge?
Posted by OysterPoBoy
City of St. George
Member since Jul 2013
34988 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:23 pm to
quote:

Say he tested the driver and the driver failed


Then he better not let them drive away.
Posted by TigersSEC2010
Warren, Michigan
Member since Jan 2010
37355 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:23 pm to
This actually happened in Baton Rouge within the last few years. If I remember correctly, a BRPD officer stopped a vehicle and questioned the driver about possibly being impaired. The driver somehow talked his/her way out of it and the cop let them go. The driver then drove a few miles down the road and killed someone on Florida Boulevard.

I tried to find the article and cannot find it at the moment.
Posted by Kujo
225-911-5736
Member since Dec 2015
6015 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 1:35 pm to
Looks like a no.

quote:

The injured pedestrian plaintiff’s suit alleged several claims against the officers and the City, but the case turned on whether the failure to stop the drunk driver was a deprivation of the injured plaintiff’s due process rights. This appears to have been a creative attempt by the plaintiff to recover damages for his injuries, but well-established case law should have foreshadowed the outcome. In particular, the U.S. Supreme Court’s decision in DeShaney v. Winnebago County which held “a State’s failure to protect an individual against private violence simply does not constitute a violation of the Due Process Clause.” The District Court set out the test for determining whether an individual could sue as an exception to the general rule in DeShaney. In order to bring a claim under the “state created danger” exception, a plaintiff must show: (1) an affirmative act by the state that either created or increased the risk that the plaintiff would be exposed to an act of violence by a third party; (2) a special danger to the plaintiff wherein the state’s actions placed the plaintiff specifically at risk, as distinguished from a risk that affects the public at large; and (3) the state knew or should have known that its actions specifically endangered the plaintiff. Under this test, it seems fairly clear that a police officer cannot be held responsible for failing to arrest a drunk driver.
Posted by LSUTigerFan247
Member since Jun 2017
3577 posts
Posted on 11/11/19 at 2:09 pm to
Depends. Whats the race of the drunk and the officer?
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