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re: The Law by Frédéric Bastiat

Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to
Posted by LSUnKaty
Katy, TX
Member since Dec 2008
4937 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to
quote:

Regarding slavery—I don’t view slavery as evil because it’s a violation of self ownership. I view it as evil because it is treating someone with a separate purpose (telos) as something to be directed to my own ends.
Granted — but doesn't the prohibition on using others as mere means ultimately rest on the fact that they have a claim to their own body and the products of their labor that you cannot override? Whether you ground that claim in self-ownership or in the idea that each person belongs to God and therefore cannot belong to you, the practical conclusion is identical: no one has the right to direct another person's existence toward their own ends.

The theological framing is coherent — if God is the source and owner of each life, that still prohibits anyone else from owning it. The slave owner's error on your account is the same as on mine: wrongful appropriation of something that isn't his.

From a political philosophy standpoint the two views converge almost entirely. The meaningful divergence is narrow — suicide, and perhaps a few other cases where a person's choices affect only themselves. That's a real disagreement, but it doesn't touch the core of what we've been discussing. On property rights, plunder, and the wrongness of slavery, we're describing the same structure from different foundations.
Posted by 4cubbies
Member since Sep 2008
61949 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to
quote:

As you might can tell from my post history, I would reject the idea of self-ownership, at least as is seemingly described in this thread. My assertion: we did not bring ourselves into being; we each have a purpose; and we have duties that limit what actions we take.



So you are NOT a proponent of natural rights?
Posted by Antonio Moss
The South
Member since Mar 2006
49503 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to
quote:

But the question here is about the foundations of property rights and how inheritances can possibly jive w the Natural Law.


It jives in the sense that property ownership entails the right of disposal. Owners overwhelmingly dispose of property to their benefit. Intestate inheritance is the state creating an automatic system of disposal to the benefit of the deceased's heirs.
Posted by 4cubbies
Member since Sep 2008
61949 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:55 pm to
quote:

You keep citing definitions that aren't anywhere close to the universally accepted definition.



We're not in a court of law debating legal terms.
quote:

It doesn't. Death is the mechanism that triggers the disposal of the property.

Why should a dead person's wishes continue to govern property after that person no longer exists?

I know there are laws dictating that the dead person's wishes are honored. That's not what I'm asking.
Posted by AllbyMyRelf
Virginia
Member since Nov 2014
4252 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:56 pm to
quote:

Granted — but doesn't the prohibition on using others as mere means ultimately rest on the fact that they have a claim to their own body and the products of their labor that you cannot override?
Agreed
quote:

Whether you ground that claim in self-ownership or in the idea that each person belongs to God and therefore cannot belong to you, the practical conclusion is identical: no one has the right to direct another person's existence toward their own ends.
Can’t immediately think of a scenario where I disagree, so agreed.
quote:

From a political philosophy standpoint the two views converge almost entirely. The meaningful divergence is narrow — suicide, and perhaps a few other cases where a person's choices affect only themselves. That's a real disagreement, but it doesn't touch the core of what we've been discussing. On property rights, plunder, and the wrongness of slavery, we're describing the same structure from different foundations.
Mostly agreed, except the reason I engaged on this topic is because I disagreed with how natural rights were being portrayed/ justified.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Make Orwell Fiction Again
Member since Sep 2003
139816 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:59 pm to
quote:

The way I look at it is there is just Natural Law
---
Rooted in divinity.
No. Natural law is rooted in sentience.
Many, if not most, atheists or agnostics, are strong believers in natural law.
Posted by 4cubbies
Member since Sep 2008
61949 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:00 pm to
quote:

The question isn't whether the dead can obligate the living. It's whether the living person's prior disposition of their own property should be honored.


How are these different?

quote:

We're completing a transfer the living person initiated.

But that person doesn't exist anymore. They cannot be harmed by our refusal to complete the transfer. They can't be benefited from our fulfillment of the transfer.
Posted by AllbyMyRelf
Virginia
Member since Nov 2014
4252 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:00 pm to
quote:

So you are NOT a proponent of natural rights?
I think they exist narrowly to the extent people owe duties to another. For example, if someone’s duty is to provide for their family, then I think they have a right to work and obtain property so they can fulfill that duty.

But no, I do not hold to the natural rights concepts that you see in liberal enlightenment philosophy.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Make Orwell Fiction Again
Member since Sep 2003
139816 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:01 pm to
quote:

Why should a dead person's wishes
Because they represent not a dead person's wishes, but the wishes of a living being that preceded death or disability.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Make Orwell Fiction Again
Member since Sep 2003
139816 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:09 pm to
quote:

But that person doesn't exist anymore.
You seem to be arguing that if parents of young children die prematurely, that those parents' wishes or directives should have no bearing in the children's future. The rights to those children, including the rights to raise them, would be equally held by family who love them and whom the parents, now deceased, would want to leave them, versus the neighbor child molester who wants them for his own enjoyment.

Surely that cannot be your point of view.
This post was edited on 6/23/26 at 2:10 pm
Posted by 4cubbies
Member since Sep 2008
61949 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:13 pm to
quote:

You seem to be arguing that if parents of young children die prematurely, that those parents' wishes or directives should have no bearing in the children's future.
You seem to be arguing that children are no different than a house or pair of shoes.

Surely that cannot be your point of view.
Posted by stuntman
Florida
Member since Jan 2013
11005 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:14 pm to
You would agree that some people intentionally leave some of their kids out of their wills, correct?

I'm just saying that if a will or some kind of agreement isn't explicitly created, the property rights issue becomes clear as mud, because the person who owned the property didn't make prior, voluntary arrangements of what to do w the property.

Acts were created to alleviate those kinds of problems, but again, just talking about the very foundation of where those property rights come from in the first place

I've read a ton of your posts in the past, so I'm certain you're not trying to argue property rights are just granted by government. That they precede government.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Make Orwell Fiction Again
Member since Sep 2003
139816 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:20 pm to
quote:

You seem to be arguing that children are no different than a house or pair of shoes.
No. I am just following your logic. If the "wishes of dead people" do not matter, who is to say that the children's guardianship should pass to those whom the parents deemed best suited to raise them? Likewise in your model, parents who sacrificed to put money in 529s or custodial accounts, specifically for the well-being of those children, would not have that money passed on for the children's well-being, as they had clearly intended.
This post was edited on 6/23/26 at 2:22 pm
Posted by Antonio Moss
The South
Member since Mar 2006
49503 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:25 pm to
quote:

Why should a dead person's wishes continue to govern property after that person no longer exists?

I know there are laws dictating that the dead person's wishes are honored. That's not what I'm asking.


Because it is the morally correct thing to do from a justice perspective
Posted by 4cubbies
Member since Sep 2008
61949 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:32 pm to
Because justice?

Not a satisfying answer.
Posted by Robin Masters
Birmingham
Member since Jul 2010
36475 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:43 pm to
quote:


Because justice?

Not a satisfying answer.


I appreciate your transparency here. Nice to know that, to the communist, it will be incumbent on the host to prove to the leech why they deserve to determine the destination of their life's labor.

You people are dangerous and it's no wonder you are considered enemies of the republic undeserving of civil rights protection.

Hard to imagine someone can be so callous and greedy...yet here we are.
Posted by SquatchDawg
Cohutta Wilderness
Member since Sep 2012
20321 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:45 pm to
quote:

The more we develop as society, the stronger the idea of private property ownership becomes.


A feature not a bug?

There has to be a reason that basic tenants of “proper” behavior were created and carried forward for millennia or at least since writing was invented.

“Stealing” would not be a thing without property ownership and not stealing has been a basic rule since cuneiform writing. So it isn’t a leap to imagine it existed far before that as well.
Posted by LSUnKaty
Katy, TX
Member since Dec 2008
4937 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 3:01 pm to
quote:

I am pointing out that identifying something as a social construct isn't an appeal to socialism or communism.
Working from memory, but in an earlier post I think you stated something like: 'something can be a made up and still be real - like money'.

When you said 'something can be made up and still be real' I took you to be using 'real' to mean causally effective or functionally consequential. But I believe the person you were responding to was using 'real' to mean mind-independent, existing whether or not humans think about it. Both are legitimate senses of the word but they're different, and sliding between them doesn't meaningful address his argument.

In another post you said 'something can be legitimate and still be a social construct', but that's a loaded statement because almost anything can be described as a social construct. Our frameworks for understanding nature, science, and morality all emerge from human cognition, much of it transmitted socially. If everything qualifies, the category carries no philosophical weight. (setting aside the multiple meanings of “Legitimate”, permitted by law, justified or fair, real or not fake, accepted as rightful - and it's normative status)

The interesting question isn't whether something is socially constructed but whether it corresponds to something that exists independently of human agreement - or whether it is only the agreement, with nothing underneath it.

Your reply: "I am pointing out that identifying something as a social construct isn't an appeal to socialism or communism", while it certainly may be true, doesn't help me understand what you actually mean by the phrase "social construct".

I'm not suggesting bad faith, that's why I asked for an example of something that is not a social construct so I can maybe understand how you are using the term and avoid potentially talking past each other.
Posted by NC_Tigah
Make Orwell Fiction Again
Member since Sep 2003
139816 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 3:20 pm to
quote:

Not a satisfying answer.
Surely you see the flaws inherent in your premise now?

No?

If not, let's explore what your solution would be.
Posted by LSUnKaty
Katy, TX
Member since Dec 2008
4937 posts
Posted on 6/23/26 at 3:25 pm to
quote:

How are these different?
Because honoring a prior disposition isn't about ongoing authority. The act, their transfer instruction, was completed by a living agent. We're not obeying the dead. We're completing a transaction that was legitimately initiated.

Would you say that if someone knew they were dying in 1 hour and they initiated transactions to transfer all their wealth to someone else, any transactions that didn't complete before they actually died should be expunged and not go through?

quote:

But that person doesn't exist anymore. They cannot be harmed by our refusal to complete the transfer. They can't be benefited from our fulfillment of the transfer.
Because the moral weight was never located in the deceased's ongoing interests. It was located in two places: the living person's right to dispose of what was theirs, and the legitimate interests of the living beneficiaries who are the actual recipients of the transfer.
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