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re: The Law by Frédéric Bastiat
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to AllbyMyRelf
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to AllbyMyRelf
quote:Granted — but doesn't the prohibition on using others as mere means ultimately rest on the fact that they have a claim to their own body and the products of their labor that you cannot override? Whether you ground that claim in self-ownership or in the idea that each person belongs to God and therefore cannot belong to you, the practical conclusion is identical: no one has the right to direct another person's existence toward their own ends.
Regarding slavery—I don’t view slavery as evil because it’s a violation of self ownership. I view it as evil because it is treating someone with a separate purpose (telos) as something to be directed to my own ends.
The theological framing is coherent — if God is the source and owner of each life, that still prohibits anyone else from owning it. The slave owner's error on your account is the same as on mine: wrongful appropriation of something that isn't his.
From a political philosophy standpoint the two views converge almost entirely. The meaningful divergence is narrow — suicide, and perhaps a few other cases where a person's choices affect only themselves. That's a real disagreement, but it doesn't touch the core of what we've been discussing. On property rights, plunder, and the wrongness of slavery, we're describing the same structure from different foundations.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to AllbyMyRelf
quote:
As you might can tell from my post history, I would reject the idea of self-ownership, at least as is seemingly described in this thread. My assertion: we did not bring ourselves into being; we each have a purpose; and we have duties that limit what actions we take.
So you are NOT a proponent of natural rights?
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:51 pm to stuntman
quote:
But the question here is about the foundations of property rights and how inheritances can possibly jive w the Natural Law.
It jives in the sense that property ownership entails the right of disposal. Owners overwhelmingly dispose of property to their benefit. Intestate inheritance is the state creating an automatic system of disposal to the benefit of the deceased's heirs.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:55 pm to Antonio Moss
quote:
You keep citing definitions that aren't anywhere close to the universally accepted definition.
We're not in a court of law debating legal terms.
quote:Why should a dead person's wishes continue to govern property after that person no longer exists?
It doesn't. Death is the mechanism that triggers the disposal of the property.
I know there are laws dictating that the dead person's wishes are honored. That's not what I'm asking.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:56 pm to LSUnKaty
quote:Agreed
Granted — but doesn't the prohibition on using others as mere means ultimately rest on the fact that they have a claim to their own body and the products of their labor that you cannot override?
quote:Can’t immediately think of a scenario where I disagree, so agreed.
Whether you ground that claim in self-ownership or in the idea that each person belongs to God and therefore cannot belong to you, the practical conclusion is identical: no one has the right to direct another person's existence toward their own ends.
quote:Mostly agreed, except the reason I engaged on this topic is because I disagreed with how natural rights were being portrayed/ justified.
From a political philosophy standpoint the two views converge almost entirely. The meaningful divergence is narrow — suicide, and perhaps a few other cases where a person's choices affect only themselves. That's a real disagreement, but it doesn't touch the core of what we've been discussing. On property rights, plunder, and the wrongness of slavery, we're describing the same structure from different foundations.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 1:59 pm to 4cubbies
quote:No. Natural law is rooted in sentience.
The way I look at it is there is just Natural Law
---
Rooted in divinity.
Many, if not most, atheists or agnostics, are strong believers in natural law.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:00 pm to LSUnKaty
quote:
The question isn't whether the dead can obligate the living. It's whether the living person's prior disposition of their own property should be honored.
How are these different?
quote:
We're completing a transfer the living person initiated.
But that person doesn't exist anymore. They cannot be harmed by our refusal to complete the transfer. They can't be benefited from our fulfillment of the transfer.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:00 pm to 4cubbies
quote:I think they exist narrowly to the extent people owe duties to another. For example, if someone’s duty is to provide for their family, then I think they have a right to work and obtain property so they can fulfill that duty.
So you are NOT a proponent of natural rights?
But no, I do not hold to the natural rights concepts that you see in liberal enlightenment philosophy.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:01 pm to 4cubbies
quote:Because they represent not a dead person's wishes, but the wishes of a living being that preceded death or disability.
Why should a dead person's wishes
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:09 pm to 4cubbies
quote:You seem to be arguing that if parents of young children die prematurely, that those parents' wishes or directives should have no bearing in the children's future. The rights to those children, including the rights to raise them, would be equally held by family who love them and whom the parents, now deceased, would want to leave them, versus the neighbor child molester who wants them for his own enjoyment.
But that person doesn't exist anymore.
Surely that cannot be your point of view.
This post was edited on 6/23/26 at 2:10 pm
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:13 pm to NC_Tigah
quote:You seem to be arguing that children are no different than a house or pair of shoes.
You seem to be arguing that if parents of young children die prematurely, that those parents' wishes or directives should have no bearing in the children's future.
Surely that cannot be your point of view.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:14 pm to Antonio Moss
You would agree that some people intentionally leave some of their kids out of their wills, correct?
I'm just saying that if a will or some kind of agreement isn't explicitly created, the property rights issue becomes clear as mud, because the person who owned the property didn't make prior, voluntary arrangements of what to do w the property.
Acts were created to alleviate those kinds of problems, but again, just talking about the very foundation of where those property rights come from in the first place
I've read a ton of your posts in the past, so I'm certain you're not trying to argue property rights are just granted by government. That they precede government.
I'm just saying that if a will or some kind of agreement isn't explicitly created, the property rights issue becomes clear as mud, because the person who owned the property didn't make prior, voluntary arrangements of what to do w the property.
Acts were created to alleviate those kinds of problems, but again, just talking about the very foundation of where those property rights come from in the first place
I've read a ton of your posts in the past, so I'm certain you're not trying to argue property rights are just granted by government. That they precede government.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:20 pm to 4cubbies
quote:No. I am just following your logic. If the "wishes of dead people" do not matter, who is to say that the children's guardianship should pass to those whom the parents deemed best suited to raise them? Likewise in your model, parents who sacrificed to put money in 529s or custodial accounts, specifically for the well-being of those children, would not have that money passed on for the children's well-being, as they had clearly intended.
You seem to be arguing that children are no different than a house or pair of shoes.
This post was edited on 6/23/26 at 2:22 pm
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:25 pm to 4cubbies
quote:
Why should a dead person's wishes continue to govern property after that person no longer exists?
I know there are laws dictating that the dead person's wishes are honored. That's not what I'm asking.
Because it is the morally correct thing to do from a justice perspective
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:32 pm to Antonio Moss
Because justice?
Not a satisfying answer.
Not a satisfying answer.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:43 pm to 4cubbies
quote:
Because justice?
Not a satisfying answer.
I appreciate your transparency here. Nice to know that, to the communist, it will be incumbent on the host to prove to the leech why they deserve to determine the destination of their life's labor.
You people are dangerous and it's no wonder you are considered enemies of the republic undeserving of civil rights protection.
Hard to imagine someone can be so callous and greedy...yet here we are.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 2:45 pm to SlowFlowPro
quote:
The more we develop as society, the stronger the idea of private property ownership becomes.
A feature not a bug?
There has to be a reason that basic tenants of “proper” behavior were created and carried forward for millennia or at least since writing was invented.
“Stealing” would not be a thing without property ownership and not stealing has been a basic rule since cuneiform writing. So it isn’t a leap to imagine it existed far before that as well.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 3:01 pm to 4cubbies
quote:Working from memory, but in an earlier post I think you stated something like: 'something can be a made up and still be real - like money'.
I am pointing out that identifying something as a social construct isn't an appeal to socialism or communism.
When you said 'something can be made up and still be real' I took you to be using 'real' to mean causally effective or functionally consequential. But I believe the person you were responding to was using 'real' to mean mind-independent, existing whether or not humans think about it. Both are legitimate senses of the word but they're different, and sliding between them doesn't meaningful address his argument.
In another post you said 'something can be legitimate and still be a social construct', but that's a loaded statement because almost anything can be described as a social construct. Our frameworks for understanding nature, science, and morality all emerge from human cognition, much of it transmitted socially. If everything qualifies, the category carries no philosophical weight. (setting aside the multiple meanings of “Legitimate”, permitted by law, justified or fair, real or not fake, accepted as rightful - and it's normative status)
The interesting question isn't whether something is socially constructed but whether it corresponds to something that exists independently of human agreement - or whether it is only the agreement, with nothing underneath it.
Your reply: "I am pointing out that identifying something as a social construct isn't an appeal to socialism or communism", while it certainly may be true, doesn't help me understand what you actually mean by the phrase "social construct".
I'm not suggesting bad faith, that's why I asked for an example of something that is not a social construct so I can maybe understand how you are using the term and avoid potentially talking past each other.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 3:20 pm to 4cubbies
quote:Surely you see the flaws inherent in your premise now?
Not a satisfying answer.
No?
If not, let's explore what your solution would be.
Posted on 6/23/26 at 3:25 pm to 4cubbies
quote:Because honoring a prior disposition isn't about ongoing authority. The act, their transfer instruction, was completed by a living agent. We're not obeying the dead. We're completing a transaction that was legitimately initiated.
How are these different?
Would you say that if someone knew they were dying in 1 hour and they initiated transactions to transfer all their wealth to someone else, any transactions that didn't complete before they actually died should be expunged and not go through?
quote:Because the moral weight was never located in the deceased's ongoing interests. It was located in two places: the living person's right to dispose of what was theirs, and the legitimate interests of the living beneficiaries who are the actual recipients of the transfer.
But that person doesn't exist anymore. They cannot be harmed by our refusal to complete the transfer. They can't be benefited from our fulfillment of the transfer.
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