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re: Statistics Spinoff Thread: How much would you pay to play this "game of chance"

Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:15 pm to
Posted by Speedy G
Member since Aug 2013
3984 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:15 pm to
The expected payout is infinite (the pot keeps doubling as the probability gets cut in half but never reaches zero, so 1+1+1...).

Therefore, mathematically, you should be willing to play the game at any price.
Posted by PearlJam
NotBeardEaves
Member since Aug 2014
13908 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:16 pm to
quote:

Therefore, mathematically, you should be willing to play the game at any price.

Operator?

Let's say the price is $100. You have a 50/50 shot at collecting $2 on the first flip and the game ending.
This post was edited on 1/15/16 at 2:18 pm
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
23099 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:17 pm to
quote:

True, but all the casino has to do is make enough to win in the long run. If as you say, the average payout of 100 players is 600$. Lets say the casino sets the game at 8$ to play. You flip at least twice and you make your money back. 3 in a row is a winner. Casino makes an average of 200$ off of every 100 players and the chance of someone winning 128$ is < 1 in 100. My numbers aren't as clear as yours but does that make sense? I may be way off...


This is correct. The casino obviously isn't going to set the price at the break even point. If this game were truly in a casino I think you would see a price of $8-10 per game.
Posted by sealedup
BR
Member since Oct 2011
169 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:22 pm to
im sorry $6 is right just re read i thought u got 0 if u lost 1st flip but u get $2
Posted by sealedup
BR
Member since Oct 2011
169 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:25 pm to
game might work in casino set it up with a glass dome like video craps it would get action for $9-$10
Posted by LNCHBOX
70448
Member since Jun 2009
89397 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:26 pm to
quote:

I play heads or tails with my friends all the time when we're drinking. Last time I won 20$. Usually play 1 or 2$ a bet.
quote:

what happens after you flip a few tails in a row? a pot size of 2$ just turned to 20$. are you really going to risk 20$ on a coin flip? I'm also assuming once you lose the next person gets to flip the coin.


Did someone not teach you that "twenty dollars" is written as $20, as opposed to 20$? I've seen a whole lot of this ever since that jackpot got so high.
Posted by Breesus
Unplug
Member since Jan 2010
69549 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:27 pm to
The complete lack of understanding on the first page is hilarious.
Posted by Jim Rockford
Member since May 2011
106096 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:27 pm to
Posted by slackster
Houston
Member since Mar 2009
91874 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:30 pm to
quote:

I would guess that over say 100 games, the mean amount won would be around $8, so that's how much you should pay. (Maybe $10)


That is one way to view it, but if you look at it from an expected value standpoint, the EV is infinite as far as I can tell - .5*2+.25*4+.125*8... (.5^x)*(2^x) = 1+1+1+...1. To put it in perspective, the EV of the Powerball is usually around -$1.70ish or so when it originally starts.

As far as I can tell, the game should not be offered as there is no "cost" that the game could charge that would deter you from playing. In other words, you should pay whatever the game is asking because in the very, very long run you'll come out ahead.
Posted by soccerfüt
Location: A Series of Tubes
Member since May 2013
76175 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:31 pm to
quote:

How much money would you pay to play this game?


quote:

How much money would statistics suggest you pay to play?
"Statisics(?)" would not suggest me to pay to play.

The first coin flip is precisely even money.
Posted by PearlJam
NotBeardEaves
Member since Aug 2014
13908 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:33 pm to
quote:

The first coin flip is precisely even money.
So even a moron would pay $2. Why would you not pay any?
Posted by Speedy G
Member since Aug 2013
3984 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:34 pm to
quote:

Operator?

Let's say the price is $100. You have a 50/50 shot at collecting $2 on the first flip and the game ending.

The expected payout for every possible sequence is $1, and there are infinite possible sequences. The odds get twice as bad as the payout gets twice as good. This goes on forever, or $(infinity symbol).

Graphically...

T = .5 * $2 = $1
HT = .5 * .5 * $4 = $1
HHT = .5 * .5 * .5 * $8 = $1
HHHT = .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * $16 = $1
.
.
.

Add them all up to get the total expected payout, which is $1+$1+$1...(forever), or infinite dollars.

Practically, probability reaches zero at about 6 or 7 straight heads, but it never truly gets there unless you force a limit.

I'd probably pay $5, but would argue the game would never be offered because of the potential for infinite losses.
This post was edited on 1/15/16 at 2:36 pm
Posted by soccerfüt
Location: A Series of Tubes
Member since May 2013
76175 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:36 pm to
quote:

So even a moron would pay $2. Why would you not pay any?
I do not accept your original premise as being true.

A moron would probably pay the original $2, those smarter than morons might not.
Posted by PearlJam
NotBeardEaves
Member since Aug 2014
13908 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:36 pm to
quote:

As far as I can tell, the game should not be offered as there is no "cost" that the game could charge that would deter you from playing. In other words, you should pay whatever the game is asking because in the very, very long run you'll come out ahead.
This doesn't make sense. You'll need to show more of your work.
Posted by PearlJam
NotBeardEaves
Member since Aug 2014
13908 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:37 pm to
If you pay $2, you are guaranteed to lose nothing and have the opportunity to win more. Why wouldn't you pay $2?
Posted by TheIndulger
Member since Sep 2011
19448 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:38 pm to
Yeah realistically I would pay 5 bucks to play that game
Posted by PearlJam
NotBeardEaves
Member since Aug 2014
13908 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:42 pm to
quote:

Graphically...

T = .5 * $2 = $1
HT = .5 * .5 * $4 = $1
HHT = .5 * .5 * .5 * $8 = $1
HHHT = .5 * .5 * .5 * .5 * $16 = $1
I get this part, but if the expected payout is $1, why is the answer an infinite amount of money?

Also, why is the expected payout $1 on the first line of your graph when it is know to be $2?

The formula seems to be missing a component.
Posted by Scooba
Member since Jun 2013
20027 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:48 pm to
quote:

Yeah realistically I would pay 5 bucks to play that game


Realistically, no casino would allow it with an average 6$ per game payout.
Posted by slackster
Houston
Member since Mar 2009
91874 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:48 pm to
quote:

This doesn't make sense. You'll need to show more of your work.


Hard to do on here, but trust me, it is correct.

Statistically you should pay ANY amount the game is charging because the expected value is infinite.

I'm not trying to argue that it is realistic whatsoever, but it is true from a mathematical standpoint. We can set a dollar amount on the game if you capped the jackpot, but without that, there is nothing that would mathematically deter you from playing.
Posted by anc
Member since Nov 2012
20725 posts
Posted on 1/15/16 at 2:50 pm to
I'd charge $10 to play the game.

In order for the house to lose money, there would have to be three consecutive heads. (12.5% chance).

The house has an 87.5% chance of making money.

A 50% chance of making $8
A 25% chance of making $6
A 12.5% chance of making $2

There is a 1 in 8 chance of the house losing money, and while the pot could theoretically grow infinitely, there is only a 6.25% chance of losing $6, a 3.125% chance of losing $22, and a 1.6125% chance of losing $54.

So if statistics held, and 8 players played, putting in $80, the house is going to make $8 off of four them ($32), $6 off of two of them ($12), $2 off of one of them ($2) and then the eighth player would win with the house up $46. It would take two more consecutive tails (3.125% chance) before the house would lose money.

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