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re: powerball odds - help me win my argument - posted pg 8
Posted on 1/12/16 at 7:32 am to TheSexecutioner
Posted on 1/12/16 at 7:32 am to TheSexecutioner
quote:
Not really. Probably lower equity value because of a higher split-pot chance in the equal chance you hit the jackpot.
If 1-2-3-4-5-6 hits, you are gonna be splitting that 1.3 billion 100+ ways
While you're probably right, that is not the reason people don't play it. If the numbers tomorrow night are 1-2-3-4-5-6, millions upon millions of people will say something like, "Wow, what are the chances of that!?!", when in reality it is just as likely as any other combination.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 7:48 am to TheSexecutioner
quote:This is a good point, but this would only decrease the expected value, not the odds.
Not really. Probably lower equity value because of a higher split-pot chance in the equal chance you hit the jackpot.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 7:58 am to CAD703X
Your odds are always the same. Lottery is random, thus each week your odds remain 1/X.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:12 am to High C
quote:
So you're saying that if I play the same numbers 300 million times, I'm bound to win once?
Statistically yes.
2 drawing a week x 52 weeks a year = 104
300000000 times /104 drawings = ~2.9 million years
So yes if you play the same numbers (or any set of numbers) twice a week, you statistically would hit the Jackpot within the next 2.9 million years.
Run this program and let me know how long it really takes.
PowerBall Simulator
This post was edited on 1/12/16 at 8:17 am
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:25 am to slackster
quote:1/300 mill chance that a quickpick maches another quick pick
That original post about QPs picking an "unused" combination is completely false.
Thousands of people pick 123456
And alot of people pick luck 7. Etc
Quick pick gives you the highest chance to not split the pot.
But yes. Quick pick does not pick unpicked numbers.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:30 am to Walking the Earth
quote:
There have never been 6 consecutive numbers drawn in any national or international lottery, at least according to my quick Googling.
There are millions of number combinations about which you could say the same thing. The fact that the numbers are consecutive does not mean they are any less likely to win than any other combination is.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:33 am to sfdurst
quote:
So you're saying that if I play the same numbers 300 million times, I'm bound to win once?
Statistically yes.
No. That's not how probabilities work.
Your odds of flipping a coin and getting heads is 1 in 2. That does NOT mean that if you flip a coin twice you are bound to flip heads once. It may take several tries before you flip heads.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:37 am to Titus Pullo
The thing that confuses me about the deal or no deal thing is just pretend this
You pick your case and get to the final 3 amd there is 1 mil. 1$ 2$.
So cant you tecnically say rite here that there are 3 cases, the case of 3 that you are chosing is case number 1 out of 1 2 3
Case 1 in this example jusy so happens t be a case thay was selected when there were 30 cases left.
You chose case 2 to open, 2$ is inside. Is this not the exact same as having an empty case shown to you?
So now switch to case 3.
I dont understand how this differs from monty hall. Is it not basically the same thing?
You pick your case and get to the final 3 amd there is 1 mil. 1$ 2$.
So cant you tecnically say rite here that there are 3 cases, the case of 3 that you are chosing is case number 1 out of 1 2 3
Case 1 in this example jusy so happens t be a case thay was selected when there were 30 cases left.
You chose case 2 to open, 2$ is inside. Is this not the exact same as having an empty case shown to you?
So now switch to case 3.
I dont understand how this differs from monty hall. Is it not basically the same thing?
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:50 am to Nuts4LSU
quote:
No. That's not how probabilities work. Your odds of flipping a coin and getting heads is 1 in 2. That does NOT mean that if you flip a coin twice you are bound to flip heads once. It may take several tries before you flip heads
After further consideration, this is true. The 1 in 300 million would reset after every draw as the event does not change.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 8:53 am to Spankum
quote:
there must be 300,000,000 combinations of numbers.
now, since this lottery has gone so high, wouldn't it be a good deal to buy one of each number combination?.
Even brushing aside the concern that you might have to split the pot, in which case you might lose money on your $600,000,000 outlay, you physically could not buy all the combinations. Lottery tickets must be bought in person. With three days between drawings and buying tickets continuously 24 hours per day each day, you would have to buy over 1,100 tickets PER SECOND to buy them all.
Even with all the millions of people going to all the thousands of different retailers around the country clamoring to get a chance at last week's $900M+ jackpot, they only managed to sell about 450 million tickets. One person, or even an army of people hired by one person (or company), would simply not have time to buy them all. And that's not even considering the time involved in actually filling out the slips, which you would have to do since you could not rely on quick picks to cover every combination.
I read yesterday that a group of investors tried to do that for a smaller lottery in Virginia a few years ago, but were only able to buy about a third of the 7+ million possible combinations. With over 300 million combinations, there's almost no way anyone could do it.
This post was edited on 1/13/16 at 1:20 pm
Posted on 1/12/16 at 9:04 am to tigersint
quote:
You chose case 2 to open, 2$ is inside. Is this not the exact same as having an empty case shown to you?
So now switch to case 3.
I dont understand how this differs from monty hall. Is it not basically the same thing?
No, unfortunately it is not.
You're looking at your example from one side, but imagine the other proposition. You chose 1 case out of 30 hoping for the $1M. It is very unlikely that you chose incorrectly and the $1M is in the remaining 29 cases - we can all agree on that. However, to get to a situation where there are 2 cases remaining - $1 and $1M, you would have to be one incredibly lucky son of a bitch in Deal or No Deal. Without knowledge of where the $1M is, you'd have to "correctly" pick 28 consecutive cases that did not have the $1M - which is so incredibly unlikely considering the original game odds that you are no better off switching at that point.
I'll put it another way that may make more sense. Howie Mandel knows where the case is, so for him to pick 28 "incorrect" cases is a 100% guaranteed sure thing - thereby eliminating those cases from the pool. If you pick your case, he will then eliminate 28 bad cases and you should ALWAYS switch in that scenario. He is effectively giving you a chance to see all 29 cases with NO risk of being wrong on the first 28, or you can stick with the original pick you made.
That is the beauty of "knowing" - you eliminate the randomness of the choices.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 9:09 am to Nuts4LSU
To say nothing of actually getting 300 million in cash and/or prepaid cards out to your "army" and collecting all the tickets before the drawing because if you don't and one hits, your worker bee is flipping you the bird and taking off. 
Posted on 1/12/16 at 9:28 am to sfdurst
quote:To get a 99% probabilty of winning, one would have to play the same numbers 1,345,636,901 times or for 12,938,816 years.
Statistically yes.
2 drawing a week x 52 weeks a year = 104
300000000 times /104 drawings = ~2.9 million years
So yes if you play the same numbers (or any set of numbers) twice a week, you statistically would hit the Jackpot within the next 2.9 million years.
Run this program and let me know how long it really takes.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 9:43 am to buckeye_vol
Obligatory so you're telling me there's a chance?
Posted on 1/12/16 at 11:04 am to slackster
quote:
I'll put it another way that may make more sense. Howie Mandel knows where the case is, so for him to pick 28 "incorrect" cases is a 100% guaranteed sure thing - thereby eliminating those cases from the pool. If you pick your case, he will then eliminate 28 bad cases and you should ALWAYS switch in that scenario. He is effectively giving you a chance to see all 29 cases with NO risk of being wrong on the first 28, or you can stick with the original pick you made
I understand that the odds are extremely low that you make it that far. But whats realy the difference between just taking the cases away and making guesses in terms of the picture of the last 2 cases?
This post was edited on 1/12/16 at 11:33 am
Posted on 1/12/16 at 11:46 am to tigersint
quote:If there are only 2 cases left and YOU randomly selected all 28 previous cases, then there is a 50/50 shot either way at that point.
I understand that the odds are extremely low that you make it that far. But whats realy the difference between just taking the cases away and making guesses in terms of the picture of the last 2 cases?
IF Howie chose the previous 28 cases, and intentionally chose cases without the million dollars, then your odds of winning are 1/30 or 3.333% if you stay but 29/30 or 96.667% if you switch.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 11:54 am to tigersint
Since the OP asked for opinions, mine is that the probability of your Powerball numbers matching the powerball numbers drawn is not an opinion. It's mathematical. Those odds are not going to change unless they change the rules / parameters.
Buy a ticket. If you win, wonderful. If you don't, you're only 2 bucks lighter than you were the day before. All the discussion in the world won't change that fact.
Buy a ticket. If you win, wonderful. If you don't, you're only 2 bucks lighter than you were the day before. All the discussion in the world won't change that fact.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 12:02 pm to p0845330
quote:
quote: I understand that the odds are extremely low that you make it that far. But whats realy the difference between just taking the cases away and making guesses in terms of the picture of the last 2 cases? If there are only 2 cases left and YOU randomly selected all 28 previous cases, then there is a 50/50 shot either way at that point. IF Howie chose the previous 28 cases, and intentionally chose cases without the million dollars, then your odds of winning are 1/30 or 3.333% if you stay but 29/30 or 96.667% if you switch.
I understand what you are saying. But i dont understand why.
Im sure that statistically there is a reason. It would be helpful to see the math i think.
Posted on 1/12/16 at 12:10 pm to tigersint
quote:It's because regardless of what case it's behind, Howie will choose the 28 it's not behind. Now there is a 3.333% chance all 29 do not have it, but in the 96.667% that it is behind one of the 29, he is still going to choose 28 that it's not.
I understand what you are saying. But i dont understand why.
Im sure that statistically there is a reason. It would be helpful to see the math i think.
So by switching, you are in essence, switching to 29 cases. It would be the same logic as switching immediately to all 29, then having Howie open all cases at once.
Posted on 1/13/16 at 1:31 pm to tigersint
quote:
I dont understand how this differs from monty hall. Is it not basically the same thing?
Is this the difference?...
In Let's Make a Deal, you select one of three curtains, then one of the remaining two is eliminated, but the selection of which one is not random. It is guaranteed that the eliminated one will not be the big prize. So, if your first choice was NOT the big prize (2 out of 3 chance it wasn't), the other remaining one has been retained because it is the big one, and thus has a higher probability of being the big one than the one you first selected.
In Deal or No Deal, after you select your case at the start, the selection of which other cases to eliminate is random, so the one remaining case after all the others are eliminated has not been retained because it is the big one. It has, in effect, been selected to be retained (by not being selected to be eliminated) just as randomly as the original case you selected at the beginning, and thus has no higher probability of being the $1 million.
ETA: I gather from the down vote that someone disagrees with the above. Care to elaborate? I readily admit I could be wrong, as it was just my best guess as to the difference between the two situations.
This post was edited on 1/15/16 at 12:35 pm
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