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Selling a house Bond for Deed
Posted on 4/17/13 at 7:41 am
Posted on 4/17/13 at 7:41 am
Never heard this term before. What is this? Risk?
We are the seller and someone just asked me if we'd be willing to do this.
Thanks.
We are the seller and someone just asked me if we'd be willing to do this.
Thanks.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 8:09 am to NS Who Dat Nation
It's a form of owner finance. Basically, they pay you in installments to an agreed upon sum, and you transfer title over to them after reaching that sum. I'd be lying if I told you I really knew more than that. Maybe one of these big honcho title attorneys on the board can fill you in further on specifics.
I am sure there are pros and cons between bond for deed and a sale with mortgage.
I am sure there are pros and cons between bond for deed and a sale with mortgage.
This post was edited on 4/17/13 at 8:10 am
Posted on 4/17/13 at 8:40 am to rmc
quote:
big honcho title attorneys on the board
I thought you were the "big honcho title attorney" on this board.
As I understand this was something very common in rural areas years and years ago, back when those folks didn't have access to banking. Like rmc, I'm not very familiar with its pros and cons, but it would raise a little red flag to me as to why the other party doesn't want to do a more conventional transaction. Is there some reason this guy really doesn't want to get a bank involved?
Posted on 4/17/13 at 8:51 am to Cold Cous Cous
quote:
I thought you were the "big honcho title attorney" on this board.
I've never done a bond for deed. The few times it is brought up I try to talk people out of it and if they absolutely want to do it, I send it down the hall.
Owner financing should always be viewed as a red flag because it probably means the buyer is not credit worthy. There are a few instances where this may not be the case such as a family member buying.
This post was edited on 4/17/13 at 8:52 am
Posted on 4/17/13 at 9:01 am to NS Who Dat Nation
Do you currently have a mortgage on the house? If so, your mortgage has a clause that says they will not allow you to do this. If your current mortgage holder finds out they have a right to accelerate your current loan. That being said...I have done about three of these with no problems. These days lenders dont care as long as they are getting the monthly payment. Usually they find out cause the "buyers" payments go through a third party escrow company who makes the payments to your lender...the lender notices the checks coming from a third parties escrow account and they start asking questions or at lease in theory....like I said, I've never had a problem.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 9:10 am to Blackbeard
quote:
Do you currently have a mortgage on the house?
Yep, sure do.
quote:
If so, your mortgage has a clause that says they will not allow you to do this.
Damn fine info right here sir.
This post was edited on 4/17/13 at 9:11 am
Posted on 4/17/13 at 9:11 am to rmc
quote:
viewed as a red flag because it probably means the buyer is not credit worthy
Exactly the problem it appears. Credit that is.
After doing some internet research it also appears that I probably wouldn't be approved for the next loan anyway if I were to do this. Just guessing.
Sounds like a giant hell no.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 9:11 am to NS Who Dat Nation
If your own the home outright its not a bad deal for the seller. You are pretty much getting paid monthly with no risk. If they breach the terms of the bond for deed contract, which is like breaching a rental contract, then you are under no obligation to them. You have not transfered any ownership in the home to them. But, if they make all the necessary payments then when the contract expires...you transfer ownership in the house to them. The ones I have seen have all been pretty short terms. For example, lets say someone doesnt qualify for financing until he has been employed for 2 years. And he has only been with currently employer for 1.5 years. He can do a bond for deed for 6 months. You get paid for the 6 months until he gets financing to pay the bond for deed off in full similar to a balloon note.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 9:13 am to NS Who Dat Nation
quote:
it also appears that I probably wouldn't be approved for the next loan anyway if I were to do this.
true.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 9:23 am to Blackbeard
Thanks for the quick and detailed info. Sounds too shaddy, risky, and not an option for us.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 10:48 am to NS Who Dat Nation
I wouldn't call it shady or risky.
But it definitely does not work for every seller. If your new lender will not loan you without the old loan being paid off, then that's a deal killer.
I have seen many BFD's work and work well. Especially if you get a decent downpayment. Basically you still own the house and can kick the 'buyer' out with the quickness if they don't pay.
But it definitely does not work for every seller. If your new lender will not loan you without the old loan being paid off, then that's a deal killer.
I have seen many BFD's work and work well. Especially if you get a decent downpayment. Basically you still own the house and can kick the 'buyer' out with the quickness if they don't pay.
Posted on 4/17/13 at 11:10 am to Meauxjeaux
If you own the home F&C, it is basically rent-to-own. The buyer doesn't get ownership until the terms are met. Do you as the seller really care where the money comes from? Buyer can get money any way they need and will generally maintain the property because of the idea that eventually they will own it. That is why people do it, the buyer will treat the property better.
In a bad economy and loss of mortgage programs, many credit buyers will still want to own or rent a home. This makes this a good deal in the current enviornment.
If there is a mortgage, usually a FNMA/FHLMC mortgage won't allow a sale w/assumption because the new buyer is benefitting from your credit.
If the original owner buys a new property, it can be considered a primary residence if it is an upgrade in value, or other criteria such as an older owner downsizing, etc. It has to make sence. However, if trying to finance the new home, they will have to qualify with the debt and some primary homeowner purchase programs may not be eligible to them. You may be able to qualify with the rental but that has a lot of diffenrt requirements and usually at least two years of proof of rental (not sure of all the different program requirements).
If someone does this, take a minimum of 10% down payment, and always get paid with check or money order. This will allow for the new buyer to do a new loan as a refinance as opposed to a purchase, and can use an increasing appraised value after a year of payments and receive credit for those payments.
I would not use a 3rd party service unless moving out of the area, etc. Just treat the old property as a rental and if the person misses a payment, then instead of foreclosure, you just need to evict them and you can sell it again to another person.
In a bad economy and loss of mortgage programs, many credit buyers will still want to own or rent a home. This makes this a good deal in the current enviornment.
If there is a mortgage, usually a FNMA/FHLMC mortgage won't allow a sale w/assumption because the new buyer is benefitting from your credit.
If the original owner buys a new property, it can be considered a primary residence if it is an upgrade in value, or other criteria such as an older owner downsizing, etc. It has to make sence. However, if trying to finance the new home, they will have to qualify with the debt and some primary homeowner purchase programs may not be eligible to them. You may be able to qualify with the rental but that has a lot of diffenrt requirements and usually at least two years of proof of rental (not sure of all the different program requirements).
If someone does this, take a minimum of 10% down payment, and always get paid with check or money order. This will allow for the new buyer to do a new loan as a refinance as opposed to a purchase, and can use an increasing appraised value after a year of payments and receive credit for those payments.
I would not use a 3rd party service unless moving out of the area, etc. Just treat the old property as a rental and if the person misses a payment, then instead of foreclosure, you just need to evict them and you can sell it again to another person.
Posted on 4/18/13 at 2:12 pm to NS Who Dat Nation
I just bought my grandfather's company and the building. I did not have enough financing to buy both the corporation and the building, so I bought the company and worked a bond for deed on the building. I pay the mortgage, repairs, etc. until I have enough saved up to purchase the building from him (less what I have paid in). Should have everything paid for in the next 6 - 8 years, barring another economic collapse.
Posted on 4/19/13 at 8:41 pm to joeytiger
In regards to the insurance on a bond for deed home....who is the named insured? The actual owner of the property or the person paying the bond for deed payments?
Posted on 4/19/13 at 11:02 pm to NS Who Dat Nation
Just out of curiosity, does the original owner pay property taxes until the full amount is paid/buyer defaults?
Posted on 4/20/13 at 1:31 pm to snatchola
You can insure anything. The owner should have coverage, general liability, etc. The buyer could have a renter's policy or a homeowner's. I think you can insure anything, an agent may need to tell you if you can get homeowner's, but I have seen bond for deeds where the buyer has coverage.
Posted on 4/20/13 at 1:33 pm to Ric Flair
I have seen it both ways. I have seen where the person brings their paperwork and switch the taxes, but i don't think you can file homestead until you own it. Not sure though. I have seen people try to use tax statements as ownership, but that doesn't change the actual title.
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