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Started By
Message
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:14 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
There was a 30 day impeachment process, with a trial and ACQUITTAL, on this issue.
And that result has no precedents impact on any Court. I am confident Trump and the CO GOP reminded the Court of the impeachment proceeding. Also confident the Plaintiffs pointed out that 57 Senators voted to convict, and most others voted to acquit only because they didn't think a President no longer in office could be impeached.
Either way, the CO courts do not have to give the impeachment proceeding any weight at all.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:15 am to SlowFlowPro
quote:
If USSC rules that this "acquittal" counts, then the clause is invalid except for impeachment purposes done in Congress.
Did that sound better in your head?
Are Senators impeached? Congressman?
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:16 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
Did that sound better in your head?
Are Senators impeached? Congressman?
You're making my argument for me.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:18 am to MFn GIMP
quote:
Wrong. At the very least it existed in the confiscation act of 1862. That law said that anyone found guilty of engaging in insurrection was ineligible for federal office as well as prison time.
I'm aware of that, and even cited it in an earlier thread. The Confiscation Act is problematic because it is clearly unconstitutional, and had lost any meaning by the time the 14th Amendment was ratified
The problem with relying on a criminal statute to interpret the 14th Amendment is you would basically be giving Congress the power to alter the meaning of the Amendment just by changing a statute. That can't work.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:22 am to Wednesday
quote:
My hot take is that I think the CO decision is wrong bc Section 3 of the 14th amendment needs enabling legislation from Congress and congress passed a law where insurrection is a crime.
I posted above before I read your hot take.
You are arguing that Congress can change the meaning of a clause in the Constitution by passing legislation. That cannot be correct. The Constitution says what it says no matter what Congress does.
No Court has held a conviction is necessary to invoke Section 3, and surely defendants have raised this as a defense?
4th Circuit said a Section 3 suit against Madison Cawthorn could proceed, but was moot when he lost the primary.
A Federal District Court in Georgia held that Marjorie Taylor Greene's actions did not arise to "engaging in insurrection" under Section 3, but did not rely on the lack of a conviction.
A New Mexico State court removed a county commissioner from office under Section 3 just for being present at Jan. 6. He was convicted of criminal trespass.
None of the State Courts so far (CO, MN, MI) have tossed the case on the grounds that Trump has not been convicted, which would be an easy exit.
I don't think the CO holding will stand because SCOTUS will rule the clause does not apply to POTUS, but not due to lack of a conviction.
This post was edited on 12/20/23 at 8:32 am
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:25 am to Dday63
quote:That is a fairytale confabulation. The fact is, he was impeached, did stand trial, and was acquitted. Whether or not Turtle thought Congress had any right to undertake the action, it was nonetheless undertaken.
and most others voted to acquit only because they didn't think a President no longer in office could be impeached.
Once it was Senators had but one task, to hear the evidence, then determine, as a jury, to disqualify or acquit. Constitutionality was a shark they'd already jumped. They acquitted in a process specifically designated as determinative in the Constitution.
Further there is an ongoing court case on this matter in DC. The Colorado action had zero foundational basis.
This post was edited on 12/20/23 at 8:26 am
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:28 am to Dday63
quote:
You are arguing that Congress can change the meaning of a clause in the Constitution by passing legislation. That cannot be correct.
That's not what she said.
All sorts of Constitutional mandates require an act of Congress to execute.
I mean Congress sets jurisdiction for federal courts and has created concurrent jurisdictions with the USSC (like standing).
When the 18th Amendment was passed, Congress passed the Volstead Act.
Now, I'm not sure that a criminal statute is this "enabling legislation", but clearly Congress is the body who has to create the laws that execute this particular clause. This is a big reason why we're in this place currently where nobody really understands what the limits of this clause are, or how to execute the scheme in order to accomplish the goals of the clause.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:29 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
Once it was Senators had but one task, to hear the evidence, then determine, as a jury, to disqualify or acquit.
ONLY for the limited purpose of removal via impeachment.
Their ruling was part of an extremely narrow Constitutional avenue.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:35 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
Once it was Senators had but one task, to hear the evidence, then determine, as a jury, to disqualify or acquit. Constitutionality was a shark they'd already jumped.
I believe yours is the fairy tale since the GOP Senators get their marching orders from Turtle. And 7 of them rebelled and became the only Senators in history to vote to remove a President from their own party.
However, I agree that SCOTUS will hold the impeachment was the only way to disqualify a President, and the GOP missed its chance.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:38 am to SlowFlowPro
quote:Let's try this another way. When you say ... "If USSC rules that this "acquittal" counts, then the clause is invalid except for impeachment purposes done in Congress" ... that would be a big fat "no." Senators/Representatives "literally" undergo a separate process.
You're making my argument for me.
But in the instance of Constitutionally coequal branches, with one of the branches having reviewed cause for disqualification at trial, and acquitted in accordance with the Constitution, the Judiciary cannot declare the finding null and void. Unless they choose to invalidate the entire process, saying continuance of impeachment following departure was a Constitutional breach.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:40 am to SlowFlowPro
quote:
All sorts of Constitutional mandates require an act of Congress to execute.
I understand that, but can Congress change the definition of "engaged in insurrection" by passing defining statutes? I think not. No more than Congress can change the definition of "religion", "speech", or "arms". That's up to SCOTUS
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:43 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
"If USSC rules that this "acquittal" counts, then the clause is invalid except for impeachment purposes done in Congress" ... that would be a big fat "no." Senators/Representatives "literally" undergo a separate process.
Which means this clause could never be used for them if the Presidential impeachment process is the avenue.
See how that becomes absurd really quickly?
quote:
But in the instance of Constitutionally coequal branches, with one of the branches having reviewed cause for disqualification at trial, and acquitted in accordance with the Constitution
For a very limited purpose that doesn't involve the "insurrection" clause.
quote:
the Judiciary cannot declare the finding null and void
Yes, the judiciary can't remove the President via impeachment if the Senate doesn't vote to convict.
quote:
Unless they choose to invalidate the entire process
This would only apply to the specific impeachment process
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:44 am to Dday63
quote:
but can Congress change the definition of "engaged in insurrection"
They wouldn't be doing this as much as creating the process to determine whether a person "engaged in insurrection".
I already said that I don't think a criminal statute does this. That would be something separate (although likely relied on in putative process for guidance).
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:45 am to NIH
quote:
Wednesday believed Sydney powell
What’s the point here?
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:46 am to Dday63
quote:Completely, totally, thoroughly irrelevant. Was the President acquitted? Via that acquittal, was he deemed qualified to run again?
And 7 of them rebelled
You can choose to ignore those questions. You can continue to ignore the facts they bring to light. You can ignore facts to your heart's content, but you cannot deny them, at least not outside of a fairytale makebelieve world
This post was edited on 12/20/23 at 8:47 am
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:46 am to Padme
You believed in the kraken too?
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:47 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
You can ignore them to your heart's content, but you cannot deny them, at least not outside of a fairytale makebelieve world
This past week we saw people ignoring absolute facts in black and white laid out before them.
It's a sickness.
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:48 am to NC_Tigah
quote:
Via that acquittal, was he deemed qualified to run again?
No
Posted on 12/20/23 at 8:49 am to udtiger
quote:
Yes, and no. This is not about the mechanisms of the voting process, but candidate qualifications.
In that regard, federal elections are federal.
Also, this was an application of Federal Law (Constitution [14th Amendment]).
You're pretty close with this assessment, but in truth there are NO Federal elections. All elections are coordinated by the states. However, you are 100% correct in asserting that the 14th Amendment is a federal issue and, if the states cannot act to curb illegal immigration because it is a federal issue, neither can they act upon a 14th Amendment issue in this regard. Furthermore, Trump has not been tried and found guilty of sedition so using the 14th Amendment argument is a failure on that ground as well.
Colorado done f***ed up with this one. Showing their true colors. Colorado is a Red state in the same way the Bolsheviks were Red.
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