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[SRS] how long has "institutional power" been a part of racism's definition?

Posted on 8/3/17 at 7:23 am
Posted by GreatLakesTiger24
Member since May 2012
61594 posts
Posted on 8/3/17 at 7:23 am
(no message)
Posted by Scruffy
Kansas City
Member since Jul 2011
78045 posts
Posted on 8/3/17 at 7:31 am to
Since actual racism decreased to insignificant levels and these individuals could get away with racism as long as they claimed that they couldn't be racist because they "aren't in power".

It is an absolute bullshite term generated to excuse acts of violence and bigotry.
Posted by AnonymousTiger
Franklin, TN
Member since Jan 2012
4863 posts
Posted on 8/3/17 at 7:40 am to
Ironically, it happened when a black man was president.
Posted by PetroBabich
Donetsk Oblast
Member since Apr 2017
5174 posts
Posted on 8/3/17 at 7:45 am to
The Jim Crow era.
Posted by SlowFlowPro
With populists, expect populism
Member since Jan 2004
481197 posts
Posted on 8/3/17 at 7:50 am to
quote:

how long has "institutional power" been a part of racism's definition?

it's about 10 years old in terms of widespread use

i'm sure some fringe whackos were using that term in the 80s and 90s

i seriously doubt you'll find much on this in say, the 70s, b/c there was still a ton of actual racism so no reason to add qualifiers
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