re: Is anyone familiar with Phantom Time Hypothesis?

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From Wikipedia:

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Stopped reading here

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I think the Muslim influence is fascinating and may be a contributing factor to the church doing what they did. I'm definetly going to look deeper into what was going on at the time Muslimwise.

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What do you mean? The entire period of 614-911 would include the founding of the religion and it's expansion into North Africa, Eastern Europe, Central Asia, Persia, India and China.

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There also seems to be a significant gap in new building construction in old Constantinople during this time period which sorta supports the hypothesis that those intervening centuries didn’t happen.

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Could this be because they were in a constant state of war/invasion?

Just guessing on time periods and Muslim invasions and whatnot. History is definitely not my expertise.

In order to go with this theory, one has to construct several other speculations, propped upon one another. Or you can simply acknowledge that paper doesnt last that long in most environments and shite had to be copied over and over. And that there is a record in the Eastern empire and with the Islamic civilizations of the time. They were all in contact with one another. How exactly did da pope and holy roman emperor coerce the contemporaneous eastern emperor and islamic caliphate(s) when both would have a) been more powerful than western leaders, b) would have no interest or motive in creating fake history for said bastards, and c) it would be silly and against their own interests to have to change their own calendars.

By any informed, rational standard, the hypothesis is hooey.

Might as well go with the Philip K Dick theory that "The Empire Never Ended" and we are all living in a Latin version of the Matrix. At least it's more fun

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How exactly did da pope and holy roman emperor coerce the contemporaneous eastern emperor and islamic caliphate(s) when both would have a) been more powerful than western leaders, b) would have no interest or motive in creating fake history for said bastards, and c) it would be silly and against their own interests to have to change their own calendars.

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Exactly. This theory is so stupid it pains me. You'd have to discount a whole trove of documentation that wasn't written in Indo-European languages for this theory to be remotely true.

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Which means both events happened in largely the same fashion in fairly close proximity with the same people being attacked in much the same way albeit, the Vandals worked west to east while the Muslims went East to West. The oldest copies of those writings likely date to the 15th century and could have easily been doctored.

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They happened in entirely different ways. You're acting like the east to west distinction is minor. That's the entire point though. There are Egyptian sources that date to the 9th century that describe the invasion, but we necessarily trust the historiography of those sources, as they suggest only 1200 men crossed into Hispania, while the real number is probably 10 times that. We also have more robust documentation of the conquest of Egypt, West Asia, and into the rest of North Africa. It is straight up retarded to conflate two separate groups of people, one from West Asia and one from East Germany, as being the same. Not only that, you'd have to be willfully dishonest in reading the sources to support such a claim.

The historiography of the Rashidun and Umayyad period is becoming more robust by the year, especially with the renewed interest in Islamic studies. There is absolutely no indication that the invasions were the same, given that we have a clear source that says the Vandal kingdom ended in 530, and a clear source (outside of the vagueness as to how the Umayyads got to Hispania) in the Chronicle of 754 which shows that a new group came into Hispania around 711, a full 170 years after the Vandal kingdom of North Africa ended.

I'm still alarmed that you can completely hand-wave the geography away, as the essential west to east and east to west distinction is entirely relevant and important to the discussion.

I am saying that the Phantom Time chronology would argue that one of those invasions didn’t happen, and the Vandal one would likely be considered the faie one.

The oldest copy of that book is written from after the phantom time. The dates could have been changed. That’s the whole point of this stupid theory, to point out that there really are no primary sources written prior to the 15th century, only copies, largely made by a small group of people all belonging to the same religious order.

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The caveat you mentioned about it copying is true of pretty much every ancient work.

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THAT'S THE POINT!!!!

The whole point is that we can't trust any sources which causes the whole theory to become a reducto ad absurdum. The whole purpose is to question what you think you know and wonder about what we take for granted as truth that might very well not have any basis in fact at all. The fact that you could make the same intellectually lazy arguments to discount literally every historical record makes the whole theory completely absurd on its face.