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Question about the Mond play on final drive of reg.?

Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:18 pm
Posted by tonydtiger
Central Mississippi
Member since Oct 2007
2212 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:18 pm
For those who say that it was the correct call and it was dead as soon as he touched it, answer me this...let's say he doesn't touch it and an LSU player dives on the ground and tries to recover it, but the ball squirts out from under him. This would be a live ball until someone possesses it. If what yall say is true then it would be dead as soon as the first player who is on the ground touches the ball, and we know that is not the case. So what's the difference?
Posted by rpg37
Ocean Springs, MS
Member since Sep 2008
47373 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:19 pm to
THat's a good point. What if an LSU player dives for the ball and gets there a tenth of a second and knocks it free. Is the play really dead because he touched it?
Posted by ApexTiger
cary nc
Member since Oct 2003
53769 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:22 pm to
quote:

So what's the difference?


It was a live ball, a bad call in my view..bang bang play, even in ultra slow motion is hard to make out if he's knee was touching when he actually palmed the ball to pick it up

Heck I am biased, so wrong person to ask...

game was over...

I don't see how there is enough evidence to say "hold on, time out, we have something up here in the booth, knee down, no INT"

Posted by Smoke Ring
Scenic Highway Crackhouse
Member since Dec 2010
4234 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:23 pm to
He had control of the ball with a knee down. The rule says that's down. If he didn't control the ball, how did he throw it without ever changing hands?
Posted by Metaloctopus
Louisiana
Member since Nov 2018
5898 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:28 pm to
I feel like I have a good grasp of all of the rules, and I was 100% certain while they were reviewing that play that he was NOT down because he did not have possession, based on EVERY other instance of what could be interpreted as possession of the ball.

Then I get drop kicked in the face with what seemed like a brand new rule, fresh out of the oven, where the QB is somehow different in that he only has to touch the ball.

IF this rule happens to be legit (which I am not certain of) then it is a stupid rule. It's completely inconsistent and irrational.
Posted by Metaloctopus
Louisiana
Member since Nov 2018
5898 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:29 pm to
Because he didn't control it until he was standing back up. When his knee was down he was only touching the top of the ball with his fingertips.
Posted by rsylve
Terrytown, LA
Member since Feb 2013
3775 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:31 pm to
Doesn’t matter. Rule will be interpreted in a way beneficial to support the way it was called by the officials. It’s over with. Bad luck.
Posted by TigersFan64
Baton Rouge, LA
Member since Oct 2014
4755 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:32 pm to
quote:

I don't see how there is enough evidence to say "hold on, time out, we have something up here in the booth, knee down, no INT"


If there was enough evidence to review that play, then the catch-and-fumble that was ruled incomplete DEFINITELY was worthy of a replay review.
Posted by Metaloctopus
Louisiana
Member since Nov 2018
5898 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:35 pm to
It does matter. If the call is incorrect, then it needs to be discussed, and people need to be reprimanded for the mistake.

If you just take everything laying down, nothing ever gets corrected.

And this is not a discussion about whether or not anything is going to change the outcome of last night. We're talking about the legitimacy, or lack thereof, of the call.
Posted by keakar
Member since Jan 2017
29897 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:39 pm to
for whatever reason it is seen as different because when you are on your knee you are seen as giving up, hench the play is over, where when you are laying down you arent giving up so you must gain possession to be called down

we all agree its a stupid rule and there really is no difference, you "should" have to have possession for either to end the play
Posted by keakar
Member since Jan 2017
29897 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:41 pm to
quote:

He had control of the ball with a knee down. The rule says that's down. If he didn't control the ball, how did he throw it without ever changing hands?


BS, slow motion replay clearly shows he had 2 fingers on top of the ball, knee came off ground as a 3rd finger touched ball and as he stood up he then palmed it and picked it up. it was a turnover and he wasnt down.
This post was edited on 11/25/18 at 4:43 pm
Posted by pkf4lsu
League City, Texas
Member since Jan 2005
4193 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:46 pm to
Don’t holders have control with their knee down and they are allowed to get up for a pass or fake?
Posted by schwabbie28
United States
Member since Apr 2006
272 posts
Posted on 11/25/18 at 4:46 pm to
Well said.
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