quote:
At one point you’re talking about the nobility of the whole continent, and in your next post, you’re talking about 18th century France, and a caste of bourgeois who purchased titles from the state.

And you want to accuse others of sloppy language?

These noblemen and their ancestors may have been former members of the Bourgeois but were 100% within the Second Estate by the time 1789 rolled around.

quote:
And then you conclude by using the word nobility to describe both the people who paid for their titles, and the actual nobility, when, as you’ve said, they were very different.

Both were nobility. Both were verified members of the Second Estate that were granted rights and privileges of the Second Estate and elected representatives to represent the interests of the Second Estate in the Estates-General. There were six subgroups of nobility in the Second Estate but these two were the largest. Traditional nobility is different than "actual" nobility.

There were subgroups in the First Estate as well but we still consider them all members of the First Estate.

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Posted by Lima Whiskey

Member since Apr 2013

19406 posts

Posted on 1/22/21 at 10:06 am to Antonio Moss

quote:
Is France not a European nation?

A French nobleman quite literally is a European nobleman.

Let me walk you through it

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has held federal office for over 40 years in which is has enriched himself and his family to the tune of millions of dollars of tax revenue despite not really accomplishing anything of note.

That’s basically European nobility minus the legal recognition.

If I follow your logic, when you say European nobility, you actually mean French nobility, minus the warriors, and you specifically mean rich people who purchased titles, who are corrupt and did nothing?

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