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Why don't they call obvious intentional fouls intentional?

Posted on 5/25/15 at 10:31 pm
Posted by Tiger1242
Member since Jul 2011
32182 posts
Posted on 5/25/15 at 10:31 pm
The "hack-a-shitty shooter" is legit when you foul him when he has the ball.
When you intentionally foul off the ball they should call it what it is
Posted by TheWalrus
Member since Dec 2012
42096 posts
Posted on 5/25/15 at 10:33 pm to
Because there is no intentional foul anymore. There are flagrants 1 or 2.
Posted by The Pirate King
Pangu
Member since May 2014
58818 posts
Posted on 5/25/15 at 10:37 pm to
Why don't they call it at the end of games when teams are trying to come back?
Posted by hiltacular
NYC
Member since Jan 2011
19762 posts
Posted on 5/25/15 at 10:42 pm to
Nba refs need to focus on getting simple calls right before we dive into shite like this.
Posted by Volmanac
Nashville, TN
Member since May 2009
7733 posts
Posted on 5/25/15 at 11:02 pm to
The definition of flagrant isn't the exact same as intentional.
Posted by Lester Earl
3rd Ward
Member since Nov 2003
280945 posts
Posted on 5/26/15 at 9:57 am to
quote:

When you intentionally foul off the ball they should call it what it is




you can't always differentiate
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