re: Andrew Weissmann's intentional ignorance on checks and balances.

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Then “convicted” is superfluous because according to your interpretation I can remove it and it means the same thing.

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No, it doesn’t. A person convicted by the senate in an impeachment proceeding can still be prosecuted criminally.

That’s it. That’s what it means. It’s there to prevent double jeopardy application and head off the exact argument you’re trial to make. Impeachment has nothing to do with criminal prosecutions. The last clause in Art. 1 Sec 3 clause 7 makes that as plain as any statute or legal authority I have ever read.

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I’m going to assume it’s there to ensure that only parties convicted by impeachment are liable for indictment since that is, you know, what it actually says.

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But that is literally not what it says. So long as you’re clear on that.