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re: Why does leftist filth say we have 1st amendment “right to protest”???

Posted on 10/27/20 at 5:53 pm to
Posted by Iron Lion
Sipsey
Member since Nov 2014
11888 posts
Posted on 10/27/20 at 5:53 pm to
quote:

Don’t see “right to protest”. It may be splitting hairs but I think “protest” carries a different connotation than what was included by founders.
So now we are splitting hairs based on "Well what our founding Fathers meant was.."

It doesn't work like that.
Posted by Robin Masters
Birmingham
Member since Jul 2010
30195 posts
Posted on 10/27/20 at 5:55 pm to
quote:

So now we are splitting hairs based on "Well what our founding Fathers meant was.."

It doesn't work like that.




Lol. I’m actually doing the opposite. What I suggested was returning to the exact words they wrote.
Posted by AggieHank86
Texas
Member since Sep 2013
42941 posts
Posted on 10/28/20 at 8:05 am to
quote:

So now we are splitting hairs based on "Well what our founding Fathers meant was.."

It doesn't work like that.
For Originalists, it does. That is why Strict Constructionism is the better school of interpretation.
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