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re: 2A doesn't give us the right to bear arms.
Posted on 6/22/22 at 7:15 pm to Indefatigable
Posted on 6/22/22 at 7:15 pm to Indefatigable
See above
If referencing the Talmud, he may be right.
Only those identifying as "Jewish" would have that "right".
quote:
talismanic right
If referencing the Talmud, he may be right.
Only those identifying as "Jewish" would have that "right".
Posted on 6/22/22 at 7:23 pm to LookSquirrel
quote:
If referencing the Talmud, he may be right. Only those identifying as "Jewish" would have that "right".
Respectfully, I have no idea what you’re (or he’s) talking about. I’m not tag teaming for Demshoes.
I asked the question because I think it’s important to consider why so many here believe that some “absolute” clauses in the Constitution are more absolute than others—and more importantly, why?
To that end I want to have a discussion on this site about the Second Amendment that doesn’t solely rely on an absolutist interpretation of the language. That isn’t going to be what SCOTUS adopts, even in the best of circumstances. So let’s talk about where the limit can be, and why? This doesn’t have to be an echo chamber bitch session…
This post was edited on 6/22/22 at 7:23 pm
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