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Baseball Situation Question

Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:56 pm
Posted by SportzIQ3235
Baton Rouge
Member since Jan 2005
815 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:56 pm
1st & 3rd - 1 OUT

Guy from 1st attempts to steal 2nd as the pitch is actually put in play - caught by outfielder for out #2 - relay throw comes in and instead of throwing to 1st for the final out to catch the runner for not tagging up..... they throw home where the runner slides in safe. Now the runner heading back to first falls down and the catcher throws him out at 1st. Does the run count?

please back up the answer with reason, not just yes or no.
Posted by jameison125
Jersey
Member since Aug 2007
2184 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:57 pm to
Yes. Run scored before final out on a non-force play.
This post was edited on 7/26/12 at 1:00 pm
Posted by TK421
Baton Rouge
Member since Oct 2011
10411 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:58 pm to
My initial guess would be no because the out at first is a forced out.
Posted by Doldil
The Ham
Member since Jan 2010
6214 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:58 pm to
wouldn't the out at first be a force out thus nullifying the run scoring?
Posted by DCSportsBeerMan
Bethesda, MD
Member since Jul 2011
1705 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:59 pm to
Yes. The runner at home was not a force and therefore a second play had taken place. If that makes sense.
Posted by tween the hedges
Member since Feb 2012
20242 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 12:59 pm to
I think someone posted a similar scenario a few weeks ago. And I think the conclusion was the run would count.
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:00 pm to
No, the run definitely does not count. The out at first is considered a force play and the run would not count in this situation. If the runner made it back to first and like tripped over the base and came off of the bag and was the tagged out, then the run would count. Second part would never really happen, but I'm just making a stupid example.

Basically anytime you can get a runner out by touching the base instead of actually tagging the runner...it is a force play...runs cannot score with the third out of an inning being on a force.
Posted by Rohan2Reed
Member since Nov 2003
75674 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:00 pm to
quote:

Yes. Run scored before final out.


Really? So if there's a runner on 3rd, 2 outs and there's a ground ball hit to short and the runner from 3rd crosses the plate before the SS can make a throw to 1st the run counts?
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:02 pm to
quote:

Really? So if there's a runner on 3rd, 2 outs and there's a ground ball hit to short and the runner from 3rd crosses the plate before the SS can make a throw to 1st the run counts?


Nope, run can NEVER score if the third out of an inning is a force out...under any circumstance.
Posted by TheVig10
Baton Rouge
Member since Apr 2008
451 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:06 pm to
It is no longer a force play, it is a timing play. the run counts.
The can never be a force play whena fly ball is caught.
Posted by Rohan2Reed
Member since Nov 2003
75674 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:07 pm to
yeah. i know.
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:08 pm to
quote:

It is no longer a force play, it is a timing play. the run counts.
The can never be a force play whena fly ball is caught.


Wrong.

If a runner has left a base BEFORE the baseball is caught, it is most certainly a force play. The runner does not have to be tagged out. Now, if the runner were to leave the base AFTER the ball was caught, it would no longer be a force play and the runner would have to be tagged out and the run would have counted in the example above.
Posted by TheVig10
Baton Rouge
Member since Apr 2008
451 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:08 pm to
once the runner crosses home plate legally (meaning they tagged up) it nulifies the force and makes it a timing call rather than a force out.
Posted by TheVig10
Baton Rouge
Member since Apr 2008
451 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:09 pm to
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:10 pm to
quote:

once the runner crosses home plate legally (meaning they tagged up) it nulifies the force and makes it a timing call rather than a force out


A runner crossing home plate has absolutely zero bearing on a force play. If a baserunner leaves a bag before the ball has been caught, it is a force play, period. No runner can ever nullify a force play. Ever.
Posted by ehidal1
Chief Boot Knocka
Member since Dec 2007
37134 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:11 pm to
quote:

It is no longer a force play, it is a timing play. the run counts.
The can never be a force play whena fly ball is caught.
Posted by TheVig10
Baton Rouge
Member since Apr 2008
451 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:12 pm to
I know I am right on this one. it is miscalled regularly but the run counts
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:17 pm to
quote:

I know I am right on this one. it is miscalled regularly but the run counts


Yeah it actually does look like you are right...I'll eat some crow...I was mistaken and thought the runner would be considered a force at first base. Good call.
Posted by Pilot Tiger
North Carolina
Member since Nov 2005
73143 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:22 pm to
ive seen that type of scenario mentioned before and im pretty sure the run counts

ETA: yea what that guy said
This post was edited on 7/26/12 at 1:23 pm
Posted by SportzIQ3235
Baton Rouge
Member since Jan 2005
815 posts
Posted on 7/26/12 at 1:22 pm to
knowledge dropped on me today.
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