If the Census determines the representation of each state, why would foreigners be included? If a state is over represented because of foreigners, doesn't it diminish the voice of ACTUAL Americans in their own representative government?

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Posted by brett408

Member since Jan 2005

2426 posts

Posted on 2/14/19 at 10:55 pm to TidenUP

At absolute best, Ginsburg is in hospice.

This post was edited on 2/14/19 at 10:56 pm

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Posted by trinidadtiger

Member since Jun 2017

13552 posts

Posted on 2/15/19 at 1:45 am to TidenUP

quote:
If the Census determines the representation of each state, why would foreigners be included? If a state is over represented because of foreigners, doesn't it diminish the voice of ACTUAL Americans in their own representative government?

It seems to make common sense, however, those opposed claim "they have a leg to stand on" regarding the original wording of congress regarding the census. It states "the counting of all people" not just citizens.

Its ironic if you think about it. The founding fathers worded it that way so they could keep tabs on where non citizen slaves lived, now the liberals are using the wording to prevent the govt from keeping tabs on where non citizens live (and getting more fed funding and representation in congress to boot).

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Posted by BamaAtl

South of North

Member since Dec 2009

21958 posts

Posted on 2/15/19 at 6:52 am to TidenUP

quote:
If the Census determines the representation of each state, why would foreigners be included?

Because the census was intended to capture 'persons', not 'citizens'. In fact, there's a famous example you probably know that shows they intended it to capture people who were not citizens - can you name it?

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