re: Question about property ownership

Always love the responses on legal threads...either her name is on the title with him or it is not. When acquiring the property, the act of sale document (i.e. "Cash Sale") lists the names of the seller(s) and buyer(s). If he is the only named "buyer" then she has no ownership interest and the property would be his separate property. If the mortgage was paid with his separate property as you claim, then she would have no claim to any type of reimbursement.
Under the facts as you have described them, the woman would have no claim to ownership.