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re: EBC Book #1 - Economics in One Lesson by Henry Hazlitt

Posted on 6/23/17 at 7:30 am to
Posted by RedStickBR
Member since Sep 2009
14577 posts
Posted on 6/23/17 at 7:30 am to
Good question. I think the implication may be that the country GB traded with would then have more USD to buy our exports with. Eventually those USD will be used by someone to buy goods from us.
Posted by RickySauwce
BR
Member since Dec 2011
740 posts
Posted on 6/23/17 at 7:55 am to
I know he says to ignore exchange rates and such for the example. But I guess even if GB exchanged USD to Germany and Germany to Spain eventually those dollars would be used by someone to by goods from us?
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