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re: Did Israel Steal Palestinian Land?

Posted on 12/28/23 at 7:25 pm to
Posted by Darth_Vader
A galaxy far, far away
Member since Dec 2011
64894 posts
Posted on 12/28/23 at 7:25 pm to
Let me help you out with a quick history lesson I posted on another thread the other day…

quote:

The Kingdom of Israel was founded over a 1,000 years before the birth of Christ. About 900 BC it split into two kingdoms, Israel and Judah.

The term Palestine didn’t exist until the 3rd century BC and is derived from the Greek word for Philistines, which themselves were not Arab and as a distinct group no longer exist. The “Palestinians” of today are Arabs.

Also, the area Jesus lived in was called Judaea during his lifetime. Judaea is the name the Roman Empire gave to their new Provence when they conquered the area less than a century before the birth of Christ and is derived from its original name Judah. The term “Jew” means someone from Judah.

It wasn’t until a century after Christ’s death when following the province of Judea's second insurrection, the Romans renamed the province Syria Palaestina—that is, “Palestinian Syria.” They did so as a punishment, to obliterate the link between the Jews and Judaea.

If you invented a Time Machine and went back to this area during the age of Christ, you’d not find anyone calling themselves a “Palestinian”.


I hope this clears up any confusion. There is no distinct “Palestinian” people. They’re Arabs just like the Arabs living in Israel, Syria, Jordan, and Egypt.
Posted by Mo Jeaux
Member since Aug 2008
59160 posts
Posted on 12/28/23 at 7:33 pm to
quote:

I hope this clears up any confusion. There is no distinct “Palestinian” people. They’re Arabs just like the Arabs living in Israel, Syria, Jordan, and Egypt.


So dumb, Darth.
Posted by Gideon Swashbuckler
Member since Sep 2019
5803 posts
Posted on 12/28/23 at 11:38 pm to
quote:

If you invented a Time Machine and went back to this area during the age of Christ, you’d not find anyone calling themselves a “Palestinian”.


They didn't call themselves "Jews" either. People from Judea were Judeans. Jew also doesn't mean someone from Judea. Jew is derived/loosely translated from the word "Yehuda". The Hebrew word for "Jewish people" is Yehudim.
But the answer is unclear when the first time someone was referred to as a "Jew", but it's more than likely well after the birth and death of Jesus.
One thing is for sure, the people that live in Israel today, are not the same Tribe that lived there in the time of King David or even King Herod for that matter.
If "jew" means 'someone from Judea', what were the people from Israel called? Was King Jeroboam I not a jew, but Rehoboam was because he was King of Judah?
The truth is murky at best as to the origin of the word "jew". It's an English word, for one. Therefore it probably didn't exist until the Bible was translated into English.
We just associate the word "jew" with "Yehudi". In fact, nobody called themselves "jews" until the 17th century.



This post was edited on 12/28/23 at 11:40 pm
Posted by Penrod
Member since Jan 2011
39864 posts
Posted on 12/30/23 at 9:01 am to
quote:

I hope this clears up any confusion. There is no distinct “Palestinian” people. They’re Arabs just like the Arabs living in Israel, Syria, Jordan, and Egypt.

Are there any differences among the people who live in Syria, Jordan, and Egypt? Of course there are, just as there are differences between the British and the French. There is certainly a distinct Palestinian people even if there is no racial distinction between them and other Arabs. The Palestinian people are those Arabs who are native to the Gaza Strip and the West Bank plus their descendants. Those are literally distinctions.

It is true that many of the people who are distinctly Palestinians became so after Israel was formed and that the others became so by an act of Roman imperialism, but it is still so.
This post was edited on 12/30/23 at 9:04 am
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