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re: Did out of bounds Bama player have to reestablish himself to become a legal participant

Posted on 11/8/22 at 11:24 am to
Posted by Tbone2
Member since Jun 2015
586 posts
Posted on 11/8/22 at 11:24 am to
The rule was applied correctly. A Bama player with his foot out of bounds touched the ball so the ball is out of bounds. That was not the problem with the call. The problem was that LSU did have possession, (then with knee down or not down), the play was over when Alabama touched the ball. LSU did have possession. The problem is whether LSU had possession or not. The problem is not with the oob player touching the ball.
Posted by TheDude321
Member since Sep 2005
3167 posts
Posted on 11/8/22 at 11:42 am to
quote:

The problem was that LSU did have possession


Dude, he had just started to grab it when the other guy swatted it from his hands. If that swat came a split-second later, then yes he would have had possession by then. Merely placing your hands on the ball for an instant does not constitute "possession." If it did, then all of the dropped passes would be considered fumbles too.
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