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Question on riders in Senate bills

Posted on 5/28/19 at 3:02 am
Posted by fowditty
Baltimore
Member since Sep 2012
7 posts
Posted on 5/28/19 at 3:02 am
Wikipedia Article

If a bill was sent from the house of representatives that was called "The Death to All Pedophiles Act" and the law only defined a pedophile/the punishment (death) Why doesn't the Senate only get to vote on that?
Why do they get to add unrelated laws to it? (for example, repealing net neutrality or whatever)

Seems like it's perfect way for Congress to pass shady shite that would otherwise give them issues when running for re-election.

Can anyone give me a reason why passing multiple unrelated laws under one name/vote is a good thing for transparency?
Posted by boosiebadazz
Member since Feb 2008
84167 posts
Posted on 5/28/19 at 5:40 am to
quote:

Why doesn't the Senate only get to vote on that?
Why do they get to add unrelated laws to it?


Because they are a separate and independent legislative body. That’s the theoretical reason they are able to do it.

quote:

Seems like it's perfect way for Congress to pass shady shite that would otherwise give them issues when running for re-election.

Can anyone give me a reason why passing multiple unrelated laws under one name/vote is a good thing for transparency?


Just because they are able to do it doesn’t mean it’s the best practice. I agree with your overall sentiment. Sometimes amendments get ruled to be not germane to the bill and will get struck off of it, but that’s a rare happening.

This post was edited on 5/28/19 at 5:42 am
Posted by Wtodd
Tampa, FL
Member since Oct 2013
68451 posts
Posted on 5/28/19 at 5:51 am to
Bc Congress sucks is the answer
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