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re: An explanation of rich/poor gap
Posted on 6/29/14 at 4:02 pm to EthanL
Posted on 6/29/14 at 4:02 pm to EthanL
quote:
That's interesting. I believe the poverty rate for black families in and around the 1950's to 1960's was 50% -ish. That number dropped drastically in just 10 years to about 30% due to the Civil Rights movement, and now hovers around the mid 20's.
Poverty numbers are skewed because the poor now receive so much welfare which wasn't the case in the 50's.
Plus, having the mom working two jobs and not being around to supervise the children's education and monitor study habits and homework affects education as well. Both are bad.
This post was edited on 6/29/14 at 4:05 pm
Posted on 6/29/14 at 4:29 pm to Revelator
quote:
Poverty numbers are skewed because the poor now receive so much welfare which wasn't the case in the 50's.
Explain how poverty numbers are skewed. Because we have more population? Is the deficit numbers skewed because we have more money in circulation?
The welfare programs instituted in the 50's were for all Americans. Everyone, not one specific race, benefits from Medicare, Medicaid, etc. I'm sure the numbers for white poverty dropped drastically when those programs were put in place also. But you can't say something is "skewed" unless it is targeted at one specific group. The only thing that did that was the Civil Rights movement, and that had everything to do with inequality and injustice.
And, according to you guys, the family unit was much stronger back then. The obvious, most critical missing link was education. Family morals factor across the board for all races, but education trumps it all
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