re: Gun Control in Nazi Germany

The irony here is that gun control was actually relaxed under National Socialism. It was the Weimar governments who introduced the strict gun control legislation.

Granted after Kristallnacht Jews were finally completely stripped of their rights to own firearms and other forms of weaponry, the rise to power of Hitler and the NSDAP had essentially nothing to do with them implementing stringent gun laws. They also greatly increased gun liberties for those deemed German citizens, which of course necessarily corresponded with their blood/race laws. In fact, Jews had been thoroughly stripped of any real power and influence in Germany by the Nuremberg Laws in 1935. Not to mention the Jews left in Germany proper when the war began were a very small fragment of the German population and certainly a small fragment of the Jews that would be rounded up and interned throughout the course of the war. Gun laws in Germany were effectively irrelevant to the ultimate outcome for the Jews and certainly were not used to oppress and control the native population.

So how does the author's premise apply to the bulk of the Jews who were subjugated and killed in the Holocaust who were not subject to the German gun laws whatsoever (i.e. foreign Jews)? The book sounds interesting in that it may provide some documented specifics regarding German laws during the period but its thesis appears to be rather dubious and hollow as far as I can observe.