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Can anyone answer this baseball question for me?
Posted on 3/8/09 at 7:58 pm
Posted on 3/8/09 at 7:58 pm
It says that Coleman has a 0.00 ERA... but he gave up a homerun on friday night. The first guy reached on an error and then came the two run homer. The first run wasn't earned because of the error, but how is the home run not counted as an earned run?
One person's thought was that after the first run came across and they went up 2-1 that the game was over and so the second one wouldn't count as an earned run being that the game was over. However LSU batted in the bottom half of the ninth so the game wasn't over.
Another thought that since the error would have made the third out of the inning that the home run wouldn't count since the pitcher should have been out the inning the batter before. This couldn't be true because then everytime an error was made after the second out, every run after that in the inning would be unearned.
I've been thinking about this all day. If anyone can answer it for me it would be greatly appreciated!!
One person's thought was that after the first run came across and they went up 2-1 that the game was over and so the second one wouldn't count as an earned run being that the game was over. However LSU batted in the bottom half of the ninth so the game wasn't over.
Another thought that since the error would have made the third out of the inning that the home run wouldn't count since the pitcher should have been out the inning the batter before. This couldn't be true because then everytime an error was made after the second out, every run after that in the inning would be unearned.
I've been thinking about this all day. If anyone can answer it for me it would be greatly appreciated!!
3
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:00 pm to tigerbrother
if there was 2 outs and error occured, any run after the error would be an unearned run
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:02 pm to tigerbrother
It's an unearned run because it came after there should have been three outs in the inning. The first runner reached on an error and there were two subsequent outs after that.
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:02 pm to lsutiger4life
so if they were to score say another 6 runs after that... all 6 runs would be unearned? that doesn't make much sense or see right??
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:02 pm to tigerbrother
quote:
Another thought that since the error would have made the third out of the inning that the home run wouldn't count since the pitcher should have been out the inning the batter before. This couldn't be true because then everytime an error was made after the second out, every run after that in the inning would be unearned.
This is the correct answer.
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:03 pm to tigerbrother
quote:
so if they were to score say another 6 runs after that... all 6 runs would be unearned? that doesn't make much sense or see right??
Yes, all 6 runs would be unearned, because if the error wouldnt have been made, then those 6 runs wouldnt have scored.
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:04 pm to tigerbrother
quote:
so if they were to score say another 6 runs after that... all 6 runs would be unearned?
Yes, 1, 6, 1,000. All unearned.
Posted on 3/8/09 at 8:05 pm to LSUBASEBALL06
okay thanks...just seemed weird!
Posted on 3/8/09 at 9:18 pm to tigerbrother
they can score 5 trillion runs but if the third out should have committed, they are all unearned.
Posted on 3/8/09 at 9:19 pm to Hot Carl
Already the correct answer1
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