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Real estate transaction

Posted on 8/10/17 at 8:23 pm
Posted by Will Cover
St. Louis, MO
Member since Mar 2007
38511 posts
Posted on 8/10/17 at 8:23 pm
My friend Bill has owned a house for 30 + years. Bill owns the house outright. Bill has not lived in this house for many years. Bill is retired and generates no income, except for Social Insecurity.

Several years ago, Bill decide to "sell" 1 % of his house to his daughter Lucille. Lucille and her young professional friends occupied the house for many years. One might say they were "renters" although there was no formal or legal paperwork.

So from my understanding after this transaction, Bill was 99 % owner and Lucille is 1 % owner.

Fast forward a bit. There was a recent falling out between Bill and Lucille. Bill ended up buying back Lucille's 1 % ownership. So now Bill is 100 % owner again.

Today, Bill is looking to sell this house, but thinks he will have to pay capital gains tax. I told him that should not be the case as his name has been listed as the owner for 30 + years. The 1 % sale should not matter.

Am I correct?
This post was edited on 8/10/17 at 8:30 pm
Posted by eng08
Member since Jan 2013
5997 posts
Posted on 8/10/17 at 8:24 pm to
I thought it went by living in the house last 2 years - no capital gains.

This post was edited on 8/10/17 at 8:25 pm
Posted by KillTheGophers
Member since Jan 2016
6209 posts
Posted on 8/10/17 at 11:28 pm to
where is Bill's primary domicile?

Posted by 1hogfan
AR
Member since Dec 2008
114 posts
Posted on 8/10/17 at 11:33 pm to
The way that I understand it is the capital gains exclusion only applies to the primary residence. Thus, unless he occupies the property in question, he would owe capital gains on the sale.

However, if he is retired and his only income is from Social "Insecurity" he would probably be in the 10% tax bracket and thus his capital gains tax rate would be 0%.

A lot of words to say, I think the sale would be subject to capital gains tax but the rate would be 0%.
Posted by Will Cover
St. Louis, MO
Member since Mar 2007
38511 posts
Posted on 8/11/17 at 6:12 am to
quote:

where is Bill's primary domicile?


Bill's primary domicile is in East Baton Rouge Parish. The house that Bill now owns 100 % again, but doesn't live in, is also in East Baton Rouge Parish.

Posted by Will Cover
St. Louis, MO
Member since Mar 2007
38511 posts
Posted on 8/11/17 at 6:15 am to
quote:

A lot of words to say, I think the sale would be subject to capital gains tax but the rate would be 0%.




Do you have a direct link that allowed you to come up with your opinion?

I want to show Bill.

Posted by HickoryofOld
PEC
Member since Jul 2011
253 posts
Posted on 8/11/17 at 8:23 am to
You will not pay capital gains on the house if it was your primary residence in 2 of the last 5 years prior to the sale. If that was not the case, you will pay capital gains.


Posted by Will Cover
St. Louis, MO
Member since Mar 2007
38511 posts
Posted on 8/11/17 at 9:04 am to
Utilities were kept in Bill's name the entire time. What else would distinguish primary from non-primary?

Bill does own another house with his wife, Jill.
Posted by busbeepbeep
When will then be now?
Member since Jan 2004
18307 posts
Posted on 8/11/17 at 9:12 am to
quote:

Utilities were kept in Bill's name the entire time. What else would distinguish primary from non-primary?

homestead exemption?
Posted by HickoryofOld
PEC
Member since Jul 2011
253 posts
Posted on 8/11/17 at 9:19 am to
I'm not the expert on that particular question, but as I understand it, IRS looks at voter registration, car registrations, bills, etc. to determine what's considered the primary. I'm unsure how much leniency they give, but I'd imagine not much.
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