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Trying more to understand this fumble non recovery
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:28 am
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:28 am
The receiving rule
So why can a receiver who caught a ball in bounds fumbled went out of bounds not have to re establish himself inbounds before being able to obtain possession or even touch ball. This is literally the dumbest rule I think I’ve ever seen with this fumble
quote:
any receiver who has by any means gone out of bounds may not catch, or be the first to touch, any pass. Re-establishing himself in bounds makes the pass complete, but his touching of the pass remains illegal.
So why can a receiver who caught a ball in bounds fumbled went out of bounds not have to re establish himself inbounds before being able to obtain possession or even touch ball. This is literally the dumbest rule I think I’ve ever seen with this fumble
This post was edited on 11/6/22 at 6:29 am
32
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:30 am to burke985
That rule needs to be addressed immediately. There’s absolutely no reason LSU shouldn’t have gotten the ball there.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:31 am to burke985
It’s an illegal touch, therefore it’s a dead ball. If he would’ve reestabished himself then it would’ve been a legal touch
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:33 am to burke985
Compare last night’s play and the Kellen Mond play and tell me there isn’t intentional ambiguity in the rulebook to control outcomes.
One hand on top of the ball for a split second versus 2 hands on either side of the ball for a touch longer than a split second.
One hand on top of the ball for a split second versus 2 hands on either side of the ball for a touch longer than a split second.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:33 am to burke985
And the LSU players touched the ball first and to me already had possession with a knee down.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:38 am to burke985
Geezus, man, the rule you cite has absolutely nothing to do with the play.
This is simple AF, and the replay refs made a great call. When a player is out of bounds, he is part of the sidelines, and when a live ball touches the sidelines the play is over.
Was that a live ball? YES
Was the Bama player part of the sidelines by reason of being in contact with it? YES
Did that live ball touch the sidelines? YES
The play is over.
Should that be the rule? I think so. I didn’t realize it was the rule, but it makes sense.
This is simple AF, and the replay refs made a great call. When a player is out of bounds, he is part of the sidelines, and when a live ball touches the sidelines the play is over.
Was that a live ball? YES
Was the Bama player part of the sidelines by reason of being in contact with it? YES
Did that live ball touch the sidelines? YES
The play is over.
Should that be the rule? I think so. I didn’t realize it was the rule, but it makes sense.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:39 am to TT
Ok so take a kickoff for example, kicker kicks ball down field receiving team let’s ball bounce around cause looks like it’s going out of bounds, kicking team player runs down field gets pushed out of bounds and swipes at ball while being out of bounds is it the kicking teams ball?
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:40 am to Penrod
Can you link the rule you just described".?
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:41 am to lsu711
I think comparing it to the kellen mond play is the best example. If mond had possession, we certainly did last night
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:43 am to Penrod
quote:
replay refs made a great call.
You missed one thing. Brooks PICKED IT UP WITH 2 HANDS WITH A KNEE ON THE GROUND. PLAY OVER. Bama dude touching it was meaningless at that point. Replay officials failed again.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:46 am to Penrod
I like how you completely ignore the LSU player having possession of the ball before it was touched
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:49 am to burke985
The rule, in context of the situation that occurred last night, is a textbook example of tautology.
What this rule is saying (AGAIN, in the instance illustrated last night) is that a player who is clearly out of bounds may -and can- affect the play of players who remain inbounds in such a way as to win the advantage for the out of bounds player.
What the frick is the point of a boundary in such an instance?!?
Complete and utter cognitive dissonance to all but the feeble-minded…
What this rule is saying (AGAIN, in the instance illustrated last night) is that a player who is clearly out of bounds may -and can- affect the play of players who remain inbounds in such a way as to win the advantage for the out of bounds player.
What the frick is the point of a boundary in such an instance?!?
Complete and utter cognitive dissonance to all but the feeble-minded…
This post was edited on 11/6/22 at 6:51 am
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:50 am to NOSTRODAMUS
I now understand the rule now and how it was applied but…the on field official determined Brooks had possession…call should not have been reversed
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:56 am to burke985
If you’re out of bounds you shouldn’t be able to affect the play. If he isn’t allowed to affect the play from out of bounds, it’s our ball.
Also, when your finger tips the ball, it’s a tipped ball.
Also, when your finger tips the ball, it’s a tipped ball.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:57 am to Swagga
It was the correct call, Brooks never had possession
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:57 am to burke985
No, that’s a KO out of bounds.
Last night’s ruling was not that Alabama recovered. It was that nobody recovered before the ball (man touching ball) went out of bounds.
Same as if Daniels is running down the field and fumbles it out of bounds.
Possession reverts to last team to have it.
Last night’s ruling was not that Alabama recovered. It was that nobody recovered before the ball (man touching ball) went out of bounds.
Same as if Daniels is running down the field and fumbles it out of bounds.
Possession reverts to last team to have it.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:58 am to lsu711
quote:
Compare last night’s play and the Kellen Mond play and tell me there isn’t intentional ambiguity in the rulebook to control outcomes.
One hand on top of the ball for a split second versus 2 hands on either side of the ball for a touch longer than a split second.
Big difference, KM originally possessed the ball, fumbled it, then repossessed it.
Last night, ball was fumbled. If he is possessing the ball then the whistle would blow the play dead and LSU would attain possession.
That is never the case with a fumbled ball. If the situation was the same in the middle of the field (away from the sidelines) and as the LSU player placed two hands on the ball, a bama player fell on the ball and pulled the ball into his chest, who does the possession go to?
Posted on 11/6/22 at 6:59 am to Penrod
You keep skipping the part where Brooks had both fricking hands on the ball with a knee down BEFORE the receiver touched the ball. He’s down. With possession. Play over.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 7:00 am to burke985
If that was the right call to reverse it, it's a horrible rule.
Posted on 11/6/22 at 7:00 am to ThatTahoeOverThere
This is exactly correct. Something no one mentioned is the LSU player had both hands on the ball with his knee on the ground before the Alabama player touched the ball. Should of been LSU ball as the LSU player had full possession before the out of bounds player knocked it out of his hands.
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