Open Invitation: Explain How the Immigration EO is Unconstitutional

The airwaves are flooded with dire proclamations that Trump has unconstitutionally targeted muslims with his latest executive order. I have yet to see one person make a cogent legal argument explaining why. If you've got it, flaunt it in this thread.

As a bonus, I'll throw in a road map of the arguments and even an analysis of the claim that Trump is statutorily, but not unconstitutionally, outside of the law.

1st Amendment: "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof."

14th Amendment: "nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

Article 6, Section 3: "but no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States."

5th Amendment: "No person shall be ... deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."

The 5th is the only thing that comes close. No one is being killed by the government. The government is not taking any property. In order for me to buy this, someone is going to have to show that non-citizen/non-permanent residents have a protected liberty interest of being physically present within the US. Anyone got the goods?


BONUS STATUTORY ROUND:

8 U.S.C. 1182(f) gives Trump the statutory authority to do this.

"Whenever the President finds that the entry of any aliens or of any class of aliens into the United States would be detrimental to the interests of the United States, he may by proclamation, and for such period as he shall deem necessary, suspend the entry of all aliens or any class of aliens as immigrants or nonimmigrants, or impose on the entry of aliens any restrictions he may deem to be appropriate."

The only "argument" you can make is that 8 U.S.C. 1182(f) was amended by the more recent 8 U.S.C. 1152(a)(1)(A).

"no person shall receive any preference or priority or be discriminated against in the issuance of an immigrant visa because of the person’s race, sex, nationality, place of birth, or place of residence."

*Note that 8 U.S.C. 1152(a)(1)(A) says nothing about discriminating based on religion.

Even if that is the case (it's not), you'd basically need a written admission from Trump that he is excluding citizens of these seven countries based on nationality and not out of concerns for national security. Good luck with that argument considering that the Obama administration agreed with the threat assessment from these places.

Somebody tell me what I'm missing. What is the legal argument here?