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Was it normal for Presidents to choose VPs of the opposite party in the 1800s?
Posted on 4/6/14 at 5:53 pm
Posted on 4/6/14 at 5:53 pm
Just thought about how Lincoln dropped Hanibal from his VP in his first term to a democrat in Johnson for the second. I never really thought about it before, but is this not insane - or was there a different political landscape at this time?
4
Posted on 4/6/14 at 6:01 pm to House_of Cards
I thought VPs were elected just like the president
Posted on 4/6/14 at 6:13 pm to upgrayedd
quote:
I thought VPs were elected just like the president
Sort of. Originally, the person that came in 2nd in the Electoral College voting became VP. This changed with the 12th amendment in the early 1800's.
Posted on 4/6/14 at 6:14 pm to upgrayedd
I thought that the losing candidate for the VP, bit sure wheh that changed.
Posted on 4/6/14 at 6:14 pm to House_of Cards
Lincoln and Republicans actually ran under the name National Union Party in 1864, which incorporated "War Democrats" in addition to Republicans. Johnson was included on the ticket to appeal to Democrats that opposed the policies of the Copperhead Democrats but were still leery of the Republican Party and likely also to create an image of national unity.
Posted on 4/6/14 at 6:16 pm to House_of Cards
No. There were a few exceptions. Originally, the second place finisher in the electoral college became VP. Then they had a problem with the Jefferson-Burr ticket; the electors had two votes back then, and one elector was supposed to cast Jefferson and a blank ballot to ensure the proper result. Nobody did, causing a tie and throwing the election into the House, where Burr tried to get elected President. That led to the 12th Amendment and the current system.
Lincoln in 1864 was an anomaly. Johnson was chosen for national unity reasons.
Lincoln in 1864 was an anomaly. Johnson was chosen for national unity reasons.
Posted on 4/6/14 at 6:36 pm to House_of Cards
The answer is "no".
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