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Interpreting Coefficients in a Logistic Regression output: what is 1/e^ßX

Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:00 am
Posted by steeltiger17
Member since Mar 2015
490 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:00 am
as opposed to e^ßX?

is 1/e^ßX interpreting the odds ratio based on a "0" outcome of the target variable? while e^ßX is for "1" outcome?

example:

What is the effect of a 1-point increase in MobilHome (categorical variable scored 1 or 0)when the coefficient is -1.5583?
so difference in interpretation between e^-1.5583=0.2104 and 1/e^-1.5583=4.75

I know that e^-1.5583=0.2104 means There is a 79% decrease in the odds of evacuating with a 1 unit increase in MobilHome.

outcome variable "1" = evacuate and "0" = don't evacuate
This post was edited on 12/6/15 at 3:14 am
Posted by BowlJackson
Birmingham, AL
Member since Sep 2013
52881 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:02 am to
Mayonnaise is an instrument
Posted by Jet12
Tweet, tweet, tweet, two steps.
Member since Nov 2010
20554 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:05 am to
It's not a good idea to cram for finals, bro.
Posted by UFownstSECsince1950
Member since Dec 2009
32600 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:10 am to
The outcome of the target variable is r3.873 when the coefficient is randomized. The standard deviation is always multiplied by the subprime coefficient when conditions are approved.

1•52b¥70 is the expressed numerator as opposed to interpreting the target variable. All evacuated outcome values must be greater than 10£.

4^61~89v+4109¥
This post was edited on 12/6/15 at 3:12 am
Posted by steeltiger17
Member since Mar 2015
490 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:15 am to
quote:

It's not a good idea to cram for finals, bro.
that would make sense if my exam is today
This post was edited on 12/6/15 at 3:18 am
Posted by Jim Rockford
Member since May 2011
98133 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:32 am to
Bout three fiddy.
Posted by Them
People's Republic of Bozeman
Member since Nov 2008
11125 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 3:39 am to
In the context of this website the correct answer is 288.
Posted by Jobin
Member since May 2009
3472 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 4:36 am to
quote:

MobilHome

trashy
Posted by Kcrad
Diamondhead
Member since Nov 2010
54819 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 4:49 am to
Chicken said there would be no math, none, zero.


Ask Chicken to re-activate the math board.
This post was edited on 12/6/15 at 4:51 am
Posted by doublecutter
Hear & Their
Member since Oct 2003
6574 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 5:17 am to
quote:

What is the effect of a 1-point increase in MobilHome (categorical variable scored 1 or 0)when the coefficient is -1.5583? 
so difference in interpretation between e^-1.5583=0.2104 and 1/e^-1.5583=4.75 

I know that e^-1.5583=0.2104 means There is a 79% decrease in the odds of evacuating with a 1 unit increase in MobilHome. 

outcome variable "1" = evacuate and "0" = don't evacuate


Huh??
Posted by Kcrad
Diamondhead
Member since Nov 2010
54819 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 5:21 am to
That's as hard as Chinese Arithmetic,

1, evacuate.

Pro Tip: Remember to take your meth before you leave your trailer.
Posted by Spock's Eyebrow
Member since May 2012
12300 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 5:36 am to
This whole question is meaningless given that the tornado factor isn't specified.
Posted by Kcrad
Diamondhead
Member since Nov 2010
54819 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 5:40 am to
Good Point.
Posted by Bullfrog
Institutionalized but Unevaluated
Member since Jul 2010
56170 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 5:44 am to
I concur.
However nowhere is the issue of proper tire inflation addressed to lower rolling resistance.
Posted by SmellslikeKevinBacon
Louisiana
Member since Dec 2012
6185 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 9:08 am to
because potato
Posted by John88
Member since Sep 2015
6199 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 9:17 am to
Posted by TheIndulger
Member since Sep 2011
19239 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 9:18 am to
Must be finals season. Good luck, I used to be like you, it's better to try to keep up during the semester than wait til the end
Posted by AFtigerFan
Ohio
Member since Feb 2008
3248 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 9:30 am to
quote:

is 1/e^ßX interpreting the odds ratio based on a "0" outcome of the target variable? while e^ßX is for "1" outcome? 


Yes.
Posted by BRgetthenet
Member since Oct 2011
117678 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 9:32 am to
Speak English muther fricker.
Posted by sullivanct19a
Florida
Member since Oct 2015
5239 posts
Posted on 12/6/15 at 9:35 am to
That variable is dichotomous, not 'categorical', there is no '1 point increase' in such a variable. It's either yes or no, 1 or 0.
Each coefficient is evaluated in the context of holding all variables at their expected values.

Go to library. Get book from Hosmer and Lemeshow. They are the kings.

Why are you asking these questions? Don't you have a textbook? Those things generally explain interpretation of models. If you're not in a stats course, then definitely go get H&L book. You need it.
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