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re: Question Related to LSU ULL Baseball Game

Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:16 pm to
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:16 pm to
quote:

I'm obsessive about baseball rules and scoring, so I'm pretty pissed at myself that I didn't know this rule

Eh, it's obscure. Give yourself the benefit of the doubt

Yeah I looked through the MLB book too and didn't see anything definitive. Definitely keep us posted if you hear anything back.
Posted by AstroTiger
New Orleans Saints Fan
Member since Oct 2007
22966 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:19 pm to
It's baseball, man. Obscurities are what separates the casual fan from a guy who reads the rule book for fun like myself
Posted by PurpleAndGold86
Member since Jun 2012
11036 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:27 pm to
quote:

reads the rule book for fun

Haha yikes.

It really is interesting though that we can always have these discussions. Shoot last week it was that crazy play with the catcher in the SLU game. It's crazy how often these obscurities come to fruition.
Posted by TorNation
Sulphur, LA
Member since Aug 2008
2866 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:50 pm to
quote:

I'm obsessive about baseball rules and scoring

I've got a book you need to read if you haven't read it already. Forget exact title but it's crazy things that have actually happened in a game and the correct rule interpretation. Example a batted ball is hit in the air and strikes the pitching rubber then comes to rest in foul territory between home plate and 1st or 3rd base, foul or fair? The ball does not make contact with a player.
Posted by AstroTiger
New Orleans Saints Fan
Member since Oct 2007
22966 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:55 pm to
Sounds like a great book. Try to think of the title and let me know I have a book called "the unwritten rules of baseball" which is more of an in-good-fun book that I enjoyed.


The answer is foul by the way. Pitching rubber is simply part of the field and the ball must either make contact or go past of the bases to be fair, or be touched by a player of course.
Posted by TigerCub
Team Boxtard
Member since May 2006
20200 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 4:57 pm to
Speaking of interesting situations one came up in one of the games last weekend at the Box not involving LSU. I kind of knew this rule but never saw it happen this way.

Runner on 1st. 3-1 count on the hitter. Third base umpire calls a balk. But then he immediately asks the home plate umpire if that pitch was ball 4. When the home plate umpire said that it was the batter was awarded first and balk was nullified.
Posted by SaintCajun
Pacific Northwest
Member since Apr 2012
4294 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:04 pm to
I'm trying to remember the last time I saw a MLB game shortened due to weather. They usually either wait it out, or resume it at a later date.
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
22151 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:09 pm to
quote:

Runner on 1st. 3-1 count on the hitter. Third base umpire calls a balk. But then he immediately asks the home plate umpire if that pitch was ball 4. When the home plate umpire said that it was the batter was awarded first and balk was nullified.



Are you sure this is correct? I think the ball is dead when the umpire calls a balk. If the batter would have hit a double off the wall I don't think they would let the play stand. Im not sure its one of those plays where you can elect to take the outcome of the play.

But, to add my own interesting situation to the thread, I remember watching an LSU game last year where this almost occurred. Runner on 1st less than 2 outs. Fly ball is hit to deep left field. Runner on first runs to second base, touches the base and waits there to see if the left fielder is going to catch it. LF catches the ball and tries to double up the runner. Throw is high and the ball almost goes into the stands. The question is, what base do you award the runner?

The rule says two bases from the last legally occupied base at the time of the throw. At the time of the throw the last legally occupied base is second right? So that runner gets home? Or does he not legally occupy second base until he goes back and touches first or until the next legal pitch is thrown? I still don't know the answer to this.
This post was edited on 2/26/14 at 5:14 pm
Posted by SaintCajun
Pacific Northwest
Member since Apr 2012
4294 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:12 pm to
quote:

Are you sure this is correct? I think the ball is dead when the umpire calls a balk. If the batter would have hit a double off the wall I don't think they would let the play stand. Im not sure its one of those plays where you can elect to take the outcome of the play.

If the balk is called before the pitch is delivered the. The play is dead. If the pitch is delivered on a balk and the batter makes contact, the hitting team is allowed to choose between accepting the outcome of the play or the balk.

So yes if a balk is called and you double off the wall, you can take the double
Posted by AstroTiger
New Orleans Saints Fan
Member since Oct 2007
22966 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:13 pm to
If the pitcher is already in the act of delivery and continues with the pitch, it does not automatically become a dead ball. The double would be awarded.
Posted by TigerCub
Team Boxtard
Member since May 2006
20200 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:14 pm to
I think you can take the outcome of the play no matter what as long as the pitch is delivered.
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
22151 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:14 pm to
quote:

If the pitcher is already in the act of delivery and continues with the pitch, it does not automatically become a dead ball. The double would be awarded.



Did not know this.

Read my last post that I edited for another interesting scenario.
This post was edited on 2/26/14 at 5:15 pm
Posted by AstroTiger
New Orleans Saints Fan
Member since Oct 2007
22966 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:19 pm to
If I'm understanding your scenario correctly, once the runner goes back toward first, he has legally "untouched" second and then would have to achieve that base once again. A two base penalty would award him 3rd base.
This post was edited on 2/26/14 at 5:20 pm
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
22151 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:23 pm to
quote:

If I'm understanding your scenario correctly, once the runner goes back toward first, he has legally "untouched" second and then would have to achieve that base once again. A two base penalty would award him 3rd base.



Once he is awarded 3b does he have to go back and touch first before touching second again? What if he initially runs passed second base, and then after the ball is caught, misses second when he is returning to first?
Posted by SaintCajun
Pacific Northwest
Member since Apr 2012
4294 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:24 pm to
He hasn't legally occupied 2nd yet, so he would get 3rd
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
22151 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:28 pm to
quote:

He hasn't legally occupied 2nd yet, so he would get 3rd



At what point has he legally occupied second? Say the ball does not go out of play but the defense does not tag him or first base and the runner remains at second. Lets also pretend that there was another runner who is now at third. Before the next legal pitch is thrown the pitcher picks off to third and air mails it into the stands. Is the runner on second awarded home or is he only awarded third since he has not legally occupied second base yet?
Posted by SaintCajun
Pacific Northwest
Member since Apr 2012
4294 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:36 pm to
quote:

At what point has he legally occupied second?

When he goes back and tags up at first

quote:

Say the ball does not go out of play but the defense does not tag him or first base and the runner remains at second. Lets also pretend that there was another runner who is now at third. Before the next legal pitch is thrown the pitcher picks off to third and air mails it into the stands. Is the runner on second awarded home or is he only awarded third since he has not legally occupied second base yet?

In this highly unlikely scenario where nobody on the defensive team is paying attention that the runner did not tag up, once the pitcher picks to 3rd the runner is now legally on 2nd. If the ball goes into the stands, all runners advance one base

Runners advance two bases on a ball thrown out of play from the outfield.
Runners advance one base on a ball thrown out of play from the infield.
Posted by UpToPar
Baton Rouge
Member since Sep 2008
22151 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:41 pm to
quote:

once the pitcher picks to 3rd the runner is now legally on 2nd


I thought the runner does not legally occupy second unless he tags up, or the next legal pitch is thrown. Maybe I'm wrong, because it doesn't seem as though the pitcher should be able to pick off to third, then appeal the runner on second.
Posted by crazyLSUfan
LA (Lower Alabama)
Member since Aug 2006
6698 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:41 pm to
quote:

Throw is high and the ball almost goes into the stands. The question is, what base do you award the runner?


Why would you award the runner any base if the ball never left the field of play?

Just going from your "almost went into the stands". The ball either went into the stands or it didn't.
Posted by AstroTiger
New Orleans Saints Fan
Member since Oct 2007
22966 posts
Posted on 2/26/14 at 5:44 pm to
The next play must be the appeal. Any game action other than the appeal and the runner becomes legal at the base, this includes a pitch, a pickoff, a balk etc.
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