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Has the first and 16 instead of first and goal from 16?

Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:37 pm
Posted by L S Usetheforce
Member since Jun 2004
22778 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:37 pm
Been answered yet?
Posted by ForeverLSU02
Albany
Member since Jun 2007
52148 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:38 pm to
Yes. Bama fans have an answer for everything
Posted by bnh
Earth
Member since Feb 2011
1489 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:38 pm to
Yes. It was the right call.
Posted by L S Usetheforce
Member since Jun 2004
22778 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:39 pm to
Got an Anesthesiologist Aggie who is looking for the correct one?
Posted by Mr. Wayne
Member since Feb 2008
10047 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:39 pm to
It's a ridiculous rule that was called correctly on the field.
Posted by LNCHBOX
70448
Member since Jun 2009
84124 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:39 pm to
Read a rule book. It's the correct call.
Posted by L S Usetheforce
Member since Jun 2004
22778 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:40 pm to
So it wasn't a dead ball personal foul?
Posted by Katy Tiger
Houston area
Member since Sep 2004
8032 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:57 pm to
SEC doesn't answer questions about officiating because only losers complain.
Posted by dante
Kingwood, TX
Member since Mar 2006
10669 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 1:59 pm to
the end result of the play was a first down. Think of if this way......If the play had happened at the 11 instead of the 1, it would have been 1st and 10 from the 26.
Posted by ComishTheVictor
Member since Jan 2011
11 posts
Posted on 11/10/14 at 2:09 pm to
Mike Pereira addressed this yesterday.

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